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1. A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict the use of DCOM and RPC for end users.

Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be installed?

A. EV Vault Cache

B. EV HTTP Only Add-In

C. EV Archive Explorer

D. EV OWA Extensions

Answer: B 

2. What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?

(Select three.)

A. Indexes

B. Archives

C. Vault Store partitions

D. Enterprise Vault databases

E. Enterprise Vault Collector

Answer: ACD 

3. What is the recommended minimum number of processors for Enterprise Vault servers?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

Answer: B 

4. What is the Vault Store configuration result after upgrading to Enterprise Vault 8.0?

A. All Vault Stores are fingerprinted for single instancing.

B. Each Vault Store is added to its own Vault Store Group.

C. All Vault Stores are added to a Default Vault Store Group.

D. Each Vault Store is configured for partition rollover.

Answer: C 

5. Which mailbox does the Archiving Task use to connect to the Exchange Server?

A. any mailbox on the Exchange Server

B. the journal mailbox on the Exchange Server

C. the Exchange System mailbox

D. the Enterprise Vault System mailbox

Answer: D 

6. A user moves a shortcut created in Enterprise Vault (EV) from a Personal Expenses folder to a Business folder. The folders are associated with Personal Expenses and Business retention categories, respectively. The user notices that when the shortcut is moved, the retention category for the item remains as Personal Expenses.

What should the administrator do to allow the item to inherit the retention period of the folder the item moves in to?

A. EV is working as designed. To change the retention, the user must restore and rearchive the item with the new retention category.

B. modify the options on the Moved Items tab of the Exchange Mailbox Policy to allow retention category updates

C. right-click the mailbox folders and select Update Retention

D. within Site Properties, select the Retention Categories tab and select Update Retention upon Move

Answer: B 

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1. A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM. When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs.

What should be done to resolve this error?

A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers

B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit 

C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers

D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP

Answer: B 

2. If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 administration console?

A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)

B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)

C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)

D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)

Answer: D 

3. A request is made to change volume residences.

Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes? (Select two.)

A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.

B. All volumes must have barcode labels.

C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.

D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.

E. All volumes must have the same media type.

Answer: AE 

4. An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 media server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.

How should the administrator configure the storage units?

A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit

C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives

D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group

Answer: B 

5. Refer to the exhibit.

In the exhibit, the server_data policy is greyed out and marked with a red “X.” 

What does this indicate?

A. The policy is using a FlashBackup policy, but the Enterprise client is unlicensed.

B. The policy is using an AdvancedDisk storage unit, but the Flexible Disk option is unlicensed.

C. The policy’s “go into effect” date is disabled or set to a date in the future.

D. A backup run from this policy recently failed and the status is in the Activity Monitor.

Answer: C 

6. An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list that includes the System_State directive.

What happens when the backup runs?

A. The backup runs successfully.

B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.

C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.

D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.

Answer: A 

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Product Description:
Exam Name: Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 – BETA
Questions and Answers: 198Q & A
Update Time :2010-8-28

Waiting for? Click here to start your Symantec certification of the road!
Still hesitant? Look at it under the DEMO:

 

1. Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)

A.Endpoint Discover

B.Endpoint Prevent

C.Network Monitor

D.Enforce

E.Network Prevent

Answer: DE

2. How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident

response team?

A.Match count thresholds are set.

B.More than one policy is enabled.

C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.

D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.

Answer: A

3. Which response rule action will be ignored when using an Exact Data Matching (EDM) policy?

A.Endpoint: Notify

B.Network: Block HTTP/HTTPS

C.Protect: Quarantine File

D.Network: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content

Answer: A

4. Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select

two.)

A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images

B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system

C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously

D.configure, test, and tune filters

E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed

Answer: AD

5. Which plug-in can connect to Microsoft Active Directory (AD)?

A.CSV Lookup

B.Live LDAP Lookup

C.Active Directory Integration Lookup

D.Directory Server Lookup

Answer: B

6. Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?

A.date fields

B.numeric fields with fewer than five digits

C.column names in the first row

D.country, state, or province names

Answer: C

7. What are two valid reasons for adding notes to incidents? (Select two.)

A.to provide incident detail to policy violators

B.to allow the next responder to more quickly prioritize incidents for review

C.to allow the next responder to more quickly understand the incident history

D.to provide detail when closing an incident

E.to provide incident detail for report filtering

Answer: CD

8. What must be running on a Linux Enforce server to enable the Symantec Data Loss Prevention user

interface?

A.selinux

B.iptables

C.xwindows

D.ssh

Answer: B

9. Which file on the endpoint machine stores messages that are temporarily cached when using two-tier

policies such as IDM or EDM?

A.is.ead

B.ttds.ead

C.ks.ead

D.cg.ead

Answer: B

10. Which detection server setting enables detecting text within markup language tags?

A.ContentExtraction.MarkupAsText

B.ContentExtraction.EnableMetaData

C.Detection.EncodingGuessingEnabled

D.Lexer.Validate

Answer: A

 

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1. Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)

A. Ghost Solution Suite

B. Recovery Solution

C. Real-Time System Manager

D. Wise Package Studio

E. Deployment Solution

Answer: CE

 

2. What is the function of the applicability rule?

A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.

B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.

C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.

D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.

Answer: D   

 

3. Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?

A. detailed file inventory

B. stand-alone inventory

C. custom inventory

D. targeted software inventory

Answer: B   

 

4. Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?

A. Auto-detect

B. Conditions

C. Filters

D. DeployAnywhere

Answer: B   

 

5. Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9? (Select two.)

A. ActiveX

B. SQL

C. .NET Framework

D. Java

E. pre-boot automation operating systems

Answer: BC    

 

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6. Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)

A. PXE Configuration Utility

B. Boot Disk Creator

C. Ghost Explorer

D. PXE Component Installer

E. PXE Automation Installer

Answer: AB   

 

7. Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?

A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.

B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.

C. It gathers detailed information about application files.

D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.

Answer: B   

 

8. Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?

A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.

B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.

C. It gathers detailed information about application files.

D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.

Answer: A   

 

9. Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?

A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution

B. Ghost Solution Suite

C. Deployment Solution

D. Hardware Management Solution

Answer: C   

 

10. Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select two.)

A. Altiris Agent

B. Software Delivery Agent

C. Patch Management Update Agent

D. Software Update Agent

E. Patch Management Agent

Answer: AD

 

 

 

 

 

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11. Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server components? (Select two.)

A. VMWare ESX Server

B. Solaris 10

C. Windows 2003 64-bit

D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5

E. Windows 2008

Answer: CE   

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12. What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is left blank under ‘Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast’?

A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new Deployment Server.

B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.

C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.

D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.

Answer: C   

 

13. After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be distributed?

A. Microsoft .Net Framework

B. Microsoft QChain

C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts

D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report

E. Microsoft Patch Management Import

Answer: BE   

 

14. An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.

Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two optional features can be installed? (Select two.)

A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution

B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only

C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support

D. pcAnywhere

E. Ghost Solution Suite

Answer: BC   

 

15. Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?

A. licenses

B. hotfixes

C. updates

D. uninstalls

Answer: C

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1. Which Notification Server 7 process parses the Notification Server Event (NSE) into SQL Statements?

A. DataLoader

B. Dispatcher

C. Event Router

D. Event Queues

Answer: A

 

2. What is the source of the information in the Resource Manager?

A. Configuration Management Database

B. Altiris data classes

C. SQL Server Master database

D. Configuration menu

Answer: A

 

3. What will occur if a resource is added to a second organizational group when it already belongs to another organizational group within the same organizational view?

A. A duplicate resource will be created and given a new Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).

B. The resource will be removed from the first organizational group and placed in the second.

C. The resource will be listed twice in any target that includes either organizational group.

D. A resource association record will be created that links the two organizational groups.

Answer: B

 

4. How is resource scoping implemented?

A. By granting the permissions to appropriate Organizational Views and Groups to a security role.

B. By including the appropriate filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target’s rules.

C. By replacing the filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target with appropriate secure collections.

D. By creating multiple Organizational Views and Groups, each containing the appropriate subset of resources.

Answer: A

 

5. Which two troubleshooting tools are installed with the Symantec Management Platform? (Choose two.)

A. Altiris Log Viewer

B. Altiris Profiler

C. Remote Altiris Agent Diagnostics

D. Microsoft Perfmon

E. WireShark Network Protocol Analyzer

Answer: AB

 

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6. What troubleshooting tool is used to analyze SQL queries and .NET code blocks running in the Notification Server and associated processes?

A. Altiris Log Viewer

B. Altiris Profiler

C. Microsoft Perfmon

D. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio

Answer: B

 

7. If you have multiple Notification Servers in your environment how many CMDBs are required?

A. One CMDB for each Notification Server

B. One CMDB for all Notification Servers

C. One CMDB for all Symantec Management Consoles

D. One CMDB for each Symantec Management Console

Answer: A

 

8. Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Choose two.)

A. Information related to the configuration of managed computers

B. An inventory of installed applications on managed computers

C. Software packages to install applications on managed computers

D. Symantec Management Platform core application settings

E. Settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application

Answer: AB

 

9. Which Altiris component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?

A. Package Server

B. Task Server

C. Site Server

D. PXE Server

Answer: C

 

10. Which feature characterizes the decentralized management model?

A. Autonomous groups within your organization

B. A common maintenance schedule

C. A single data center

D. Limited number of remote sites

Answer: A

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11. Which feature characterizes the centralized management model?

A. A single IT management team

B. Language barriers between sites

C. A large company with subsidiaries

D. Several data centers

Answer: A

 

12. What Symantec Management system feature is used to off load processing from a Symantec Management Platform?

A. Site Server

B. Hierarchy

C. Replication

D. Software Management Framework

Answer: A

 

13. Which Symantec Management system feature is used to reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), that is, increase the efficiency of a single IT administrator?

A. Site Server

B. Hierarchy

C. Task Service

D. Software Management Framework

Answer: B

 

14. Which item is true when migrating from Notification Server 6 to Notification Server 7?

A. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same server

B. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same database

C. Additional SQL, operating system, and Notification Server licenses are required

D. .NET 3.5, SQL Server 2005, and Windows 2003 must be installed for the migration to continue

Answer: D

 

15. Which server role will conflict with the Notification Server?

A. Terminal Server

B. PXE Server

C. Domain Controller

D. FTP Server

Answer: C

 

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: st0-074
Exam Name: Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS)
Questions and Answers:94Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-26
Price:$99.00
Exam Details
The exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Symantec Certified Network Associate certification. The (st0-074) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Symantec Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Symantec Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Symantec networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

1. What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A.a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B.a geographic configuration reference
C.a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D.a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
ANSWER: C
2. Rather than distributing the Enterprise Vault (EV) client through the Group Policy Object, the network administrator wants to distribute the Self Installing client through EV custom forms.
What must be enabled on the client to accomplish this?
A.ActiveX controls
B.Background Intelligent Transfer Services
C.Remote Procedure Call
D.Automatic Updates
ANSWER: A
3. Which two functions are performed by the Enterprise Vault (EV) Configuration Wizard? (Select two.)
A.grants privileges to the Vault Service account
B.configures the Provisioning Service
C.creates the EV system mailbox
D.configures the index and shopping basket locations
E.configures the Vault Store Group fingerprint database
ANSWER: AD
4. For optimal performance, which two solutions are best for setting up Enterprise Vault indexes? (Select two.)
A.direct-attached disks
B.SDLT tape drives
C.WORM storage
D.SAN storage
E.NAS device
ANSWER: AD
5. What happens when an administrator rebuilds an index using the Enterprise Vault Administration Console?
A.A snapshot is taken of the index and then rebuilt.
B.The directory service is suspended and the index is rebuilt.
C.The index is added to the specified index location.
D.The entire index is deleted and rebuilt.
ANSWER: D
6. Which two functions does Vault Cache provide to users? (Select two.)
A.access to archived data with limited bandwidth
B.access to archived data without network connectivity
C.access to archived data from search.asp
D.access to archived data from Entourage
E.access to restore from vault
ANSWER: AB
7. Which three options are available for export when restoring a shopping basket in the Enterprise Vault browser search? (Select three.)
A..pst
B..csv
C..tif
D.a subfolder of the restored items folder
E.current folder path inside the mailbox
ANSWER: ADE
8. Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML.
What is a benefit of changing the default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A.increases the performance of file conversion
B.allows for the support of additional document types
C.allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D.significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
ANSWER: A

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9. What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users? (Select three.)
A.extends the archived mail availability
B.provides remote access to multiple user archives
C.provides remote access to archived public folder items
D.unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E.runs independent of EV services
ANSWER: ABC
10. From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select three.)
A.Outlook profiles
B.Tape libraries
C.UNIX servers
D.Windows servers
E.Remote client workstations
ANSWER: ADE
11. Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select three.)
A.Outlook Delegates permissions
B.Exchange Public Folder permissions
C.Outlook Folder permissions
D.Domain Administrative permissions
E.Outlook Address Book permissions
ANSWER: ABC
12. An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying different archiving strategies.
Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A.The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy and moves the users into these groups.
B.The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C.The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D.The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default policy for everyone else.
ANSWER: B
13. In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A.Traditional Chinese
B.Danish
C.Portuguese
D.Finnish
E.Hebrew
ANSWER: ABE
14. Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A.Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B.Exchange Managed Folders
C.Exchange Management Shell
D.Exchange Dumpster
ANSWER: B
15. What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A.to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B.to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C.to centralize information management and retention
D.to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E.to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
ANSWER: BC

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