Product Description
Exam Number/Code: HP0-S24
Exam Name: Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise
Questions and Answers:95Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-25
Price:$109.00
Exam Details
The HP MASE exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate HP MASE certification. The HP MASE (HP0-S24) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure,and troubleshoot the various HP networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: HP0-S21
Exam Name: Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise
Questions and Answers:70Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-25
Price:$109.00
With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 70 Q&A to your HP0-S21 exam preparation. In the HP0-S21 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP ASE helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

Exam : HP HP0-S20
Title : Implementing HP BladeSystem
Version : v10.22

1. Which bays must be used when installing three power supplies in a c7000 to support power redundancy mode?
A. Bays 1, 2, 4
B. Bays 1, 2, 5
C. Bays 1, 3, 4
D. Bays 2, 3, 5
Answer:A
2. Which tasks are part of the Evaluate Data step of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select three.)
A. analyze the mode of failure
B. gather messages from iLO logs
C. apply one change or one solution at a time
D. isolate faults to a hardware or software system
E. determine which components could cause the problem
F. check environmental conditions
Answer:ADE
3. Which features are included with the HP Modular Cooling System G2? (Select two.)
A. non-uniform airflow
B. fixed temperature set point
C. hot-swappable components
D. water leak detector
Answer: CD
4. Which statements are true about the AMD Opteron server memory architecture? (Select two.)
A. AMD Opteron uses HyperTransport for Direct Memory Access (DMA) transfers.
B. Each processor has its own memory.
C. A shared memory bus interconnects the CPUs with memory.
D. AMD Opteron uses 8-way interleaved memory in conjunction with proMem technology.
Answer:AB
5. Which options can be enabled in the HP Network Configuration Utility? (Select two.)
A. fault tolerance
B. NIC-assisted load balancing
C. switch-assisted load balancing
D. DHCP server support
Answer:AC
6. Which benefits are server blades designed to provide? (Select two.)
A. ultra-density
B. highest internal expansion capability
C. power-efficiency
D. highest drive density
Answer:AC
7. Which ProLiant G6-series technology increases the speed at which data can be communicated between the processor and the memory DIMMs?
A. AMD Direct Connect Architecture
B. Intel Turbo Burst Technology
C. Intel QuickPath Technology
D. Intel Hyper-Threading Technology
Answer: C
8. Which server blades are optimized for HPC (High Performance Computing) solutions? (Select two.)
A. BL2X0c
B. BL46Xc
C. BL49Xc
D. BL68Xc
E. BL8XXc
F. BL2×220c
Answer:AF

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9. Which features does the HP iLO Advanced for BladeSystem license include? (Select two.)
A. global team collaboration
B. server migration pack
C. enhanced networking
D. headless server deployment
E. integration with LDAP services
Answer:AE
10. What can you do from the Insight Display on a c-Class BladeSystem enclosure?
A. Access the Health Summary of the enclosure.
B. Change IP addresses of iLO 2 on individual blades.
C. Power individual blades on or off.
D. Power the enclosure on or off.
Answer:A
11. What provides a single point of contact for users performing basic management tasks on server blades or switches within a c-Class blade enclosure?
A. iLO 2 management processor
B. Insight Display
C. Onboard Administrator
D. HP GbE2c
Answer: C
12. What is the minimum number of power supplies that must be installed when a c-Class BladeSystem is configured for three-phase redundant AC power?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: E
13. Which HP BladeSystem multifunction NIC feature shifts processing of the communication stack from the server processor to the NIC?
A. TOE
B. WOL
C. iSCSI
D. PXE
E. RDMA
Answer:A
14. Which server blades require the PCI Express Mezzanine Pass-Thru Card to enable connectivity to an adjacent PCI expansion blade? (Select two.)
A. BL860c
B. BL460c G6
C. BL685c G5
D. BL870c
E. BL465c G6
F. BL2×220c G5
Answer:AC
15. Which operating systems are supported on a ProLiant BL 460c G6 Server? (Select three.)
A. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition
B. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10
C. Open VMS 8.3
D. HP-UX 11i
E. Novell NetWare 6.5
Answer:ABE

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 70 Q&A to your HP0-S21 exam preparation. In the HP0-S21 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP ASE helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

Exam Details
The HP ASE exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate HP ASE certification. The HP ASE (HP0-S21) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various HP networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: HP0-S20
Exam Name: Implementing HP BladeSystem
Questions and Answers:60Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-25
Price:$109.00
Exam Details
The HP AIS exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate HP AIS certification. The HP AIS (HP0-S20) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure,and troubleshoot the various HP networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

1. Click the Exhibit button.In the exhibit, why do you see an “x” for the users in the second field of the /etc/passwd file?
A. Blank password is used.
B. Shadow password is enabled.
C. User is currently deactivated.
D. Password has expired.
Answer: B
2. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.)
A. Name Servers
B. Hierarchical Name Space
C. Name Clients
D. Resolvers
E. ARPA Name Space
F. Start of Authority (SOA)
Answer:ABD
3. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster?
A. cmclstat
B. cmshowcluster
C. cmviewcl
D. cmviewconf
E. cmgetconf
Answer: C
4. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers
B. HP ProLiant servers
C. HP Integrity servers
D. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer:AC
5. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual Machine?
(Select two.)
A. hpvmrun -P vm1
B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start
C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on
D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start
E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init
F. hpvmstart -P vm1
Answer: CF

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6. What are advantages of the Online JFS file system? (Select two.)
A. allows more files per file system
B. supports 128-bit encryption of system files
C. supports larger disk drives
D. supports online defragmentation
E. supports dynamic online resizing of the file system
Answer: DE
7. Which VxVM command should be used to examine the volume configuration?
A. vgdisplay -v
B. vxdisplay -v
C. lvdisplay -vt
D. vxprint -hvt
Answer: D
8. Which command is used to see the attached hardware using the new agile view addressing?
A. ioscan -fnN
B. ioscan -kfC
C. scsimgr scan hardware
D. hwinfo -v
Answer:A
9. What can be determined using the which or whence command?
A. current version and release of an executable
B. compiler options used to create an executable
C. absolute path for an executable
D. pseudo terminal your session is currently logged on
Answer: C
10. Which log file do you review to determine if the kernel module was modified on the command line?
A. /var/log/messages
B. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
C. /stand/vmunix.log
D. /var/adm/kc.log
Answer: D

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: HP0-P20
Exam Name: HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Questions and Answers:63Q&A
Update Time:2009-12-30
Price:$149.00
Exam Details
The Certification I exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate Certification I certification. The Certification I (HP0-P20) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various HP networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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1. Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other EVA array models?
A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves
Answer: A
2. Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)
A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization
Answer: DE
3. What is the source of the identifying data that is inserted into the HP CommandView EVA SNMP MIB when it is generated?
A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file
Answer: D
4. A disk group is set to double protection level and contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens when there is simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same Redundant Storage Set?
A. The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
B. Vraid1 data migrate to Vraid5.
C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.
Answer: D
5.What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an EVA to single?
A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
Answer: D

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6. What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the EVA context?
A. smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B. smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C. disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D. data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
Answer: B
7. You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen if a single disk fails?
A. The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B. The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
C. The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
D. The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
Answer: A
8. Which interconnect technology is used when integrating the mpx110 router into an EVA solution?
A. FCIP
B. FICON
C. iSCSI
D. WDM
Answer: A
9. Which interface is used to connect a FATA drive to an EVA controller? (Select two.)
A. single port
B. dual port
C. Serial ATA
D. Native Fibre Channel
E. Parallel ATA
Answer: BD
10. How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB Vraid1 Vdisks?
A. The group does not need to relevel.
B. across 16 disks in the group
C. across 15 disks in the group
D. across 14 disks in the group
E. across 10 disks in the group
Answer: D

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1.What is the minimum number of power supplies required in a BladeSystem c-Class when using three-phase power?
A.2
B.3
C.6
D.8
ANSWER: C
2.You have a c7000 BladeSystem enclosure that uses single phase power with six power supply modules.
What happens to the Insight Display of this enclosure when one of the power cables is disconnected from the enclosure?
A.The Insight Display unit sends out SNMP alerts to the SNMP trap destination.
B.The Insight Display unit produces an alert beep sound and flashes the display LCD.
C.The Insight Display unit displays an alert indicating the power supply unit that lost power.
D.The Insight Display unit initiates a self-reconfiguration of the power setting to N+N redundancy.
ANSWER: C
3.Which processors use a 64-bit x86-based architecture? (Select two.)
A.Intel Itanium
B.AMD Opteron
C.Intel Pentium IV
D.Intel Pentium M
E.Intel Xeon Quad Core
ANSWER: BE
4.Which HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades support HP-UX? (Select two.)
A.BL465c
B.BL680c
C.BL685c
D.BL860c
E.BL870c
F.BL2×220c
ANSWER: DE
5.What is the function of ECC memory?
A.It only detects single-bit errors.
B.It detects and corrects single-bit errors.
C.It detects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
D.It detects and corrects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
ANSWER: B

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6.Which storage technology is used with Serial Attached SCSI?
A.NUMA
B.shared bus
C.one-to-many
D.point-to-point
ANSWER: D
7.Which options exist when you enable HP NIC teaming? (Select two.)
A.fault tolerance
B.CISCO Layer 4 teaming
C.socket layered balancing
D.NIC assisted load balancing
E.switch assisted load balancing
ANSWER: AE
8.Which HP server blade uses the Itanium processor?
A.SB40c
B.BL485c
C.BL685c
D.BL860c
E.BL2×220c
ANSWER: D
9.How is BladeSystem Integrated Manager installed by default?
A.as part of a SmartStart installation
B.with the initial installation of HP SIM
C.as an add-on after HP SIM is installed
D.with a separate license key in HP SIM
ANSWER: B
10.Which Onboard Administrator is the primary by default?
A.the left one
B.the right one
C.the active one
D.the first one installed
ANSWER: A

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1. Which functions are provided by Integrity Virtual Machines but not by hard partitions?
A. failover protection for high availability
B. ability to run multiple operating systems simultaneously
C. electrical isolation
D. dynamic resource allocation
Answer: D

2. When you are designing an HP Integrity solution, which HP tool should you use to determine power consumption?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. sizing tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
D. power calculator
Answer: D

3. Your customer wants to permanently move processor usage rights within a server. Which type of licensing is needed?
A. TiCAP
B. vPar
C. GiCAP
D. iCAP
Answer: D

4. Which feature of an HP Integrity cell-based server enables you to replace a failed processor on one partition, while the other partition is running?
A. dynamic processor deallocation
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. electrically isolated partitions
D. hot plug processors
Answer: C

5. Which feature of the HP sx2000 chipset makes the Integrity rx7640 server a better choice for high availability than the rx6600?
A. double chip spare
B. Hyper-Threading
C. link self-healing
D. Dynamic Processor Resilience
Answer: C

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6. A customer is currently using 32-bit processors in their data center. At present, they are not running out of disk space for their applications, and they

have not had to create partitions for their databases.
What advantage can this customer gain by switching to 64-bit computing? (Select two.)
A. greater security and availability
B. reduced diskspace costs
C. faster response times for queries
D. fewer processors required for tasks
E. potential reduction in licensing costs
Answer: DE

7. Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

8. Which high-availability feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. chip spare like memory
B. memory scrubbing
C. dynamic page deallocation
D. address control parity
Answer: A

9. Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

10. Which statement is true regarding I/O technologies in HP Integrity servers?
A. PCIe uses a dual simplex point-to-point topology to move data.
B. PCI-X and PCIe support complex routing.
C. PCI, PCI-X, and PCIe use parallel buses.
D. PCI and PCIe are connector-compatible.
Answer: A

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Exam Details
The HP AIS exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate HP AIS certification. The HP AIS (HP0-S20) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various HP networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

1. Which bays must be used when installing three power supplies in a c7000 to support power redundancy mode?
A. Bays 1, 2, 4
B. Bays 1, 2, 5
C. Bays 1, 3, 4
D. Bays 2, 3, 5
Answer:A

2. Which tasks are part of the Evaluate Data step of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select three.)
A. analyze the mode of failure
B. gather messages from iLO logs
C. apply one change or one solution at a time
D. isolate faults to a hardware or software system
E. determine which components could cause the problem
F. check environmental conditions
Answer:ADE

3. Which features are included with the HP Modular Cooling System G2? (Select two.)
A. non-uniform airflow
B. fixed temperature set point
C. hot-swappable components
D. water leak detector
Answer: CD

4. Which statements are true about the AMD Opteron server memory architecture? (Select two.)
A. AMD Opteron uses HyperTransport for Direct Memory Access (DMA) transfers.
B. Each processor has its own memory.
C. A shared memory bus interconnects the CPUs with memory.
D. AMD Opteron uses 8-way interleaved memory in conjunction with proMem technology.
Answer:AB

5. Which options can be enabled in the HP Network Configuration Utility? (Select two.)
A. fault tolerance
B. NIC-assisted load balancing
C. switch-assisted load balancing
D. DHCP server support
Answer:AC

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6. Which benefits are server blades designed to provide? (Select two.)
A. ultra-density
B. highest internal expansion capability
C. power-efficiency
D. highest drive density
Answer:AC

7. Which ProLiant G6-series technology increases the speed at which data can be communicated between the processor and the memory DIMMs?
A. AMD Direct Connect Architecture
B. Intel Turbo Burst Technology
C. Intel QuickPath Technology
D. Intel Hyper-Threading Technology
Answer: C

8. Which server blades are optimized for HPC (High Performance Computing) solutions? (Select two.)
A. BL2X0c
B. BL46Xc
C. BL49Xc
D. BL68Xc
E. BL8XXc
F. BL2×220c
Answer:AF

9. Which features does the HP iLO Advanced for BladeSystem license include? (Select two.)
A. global team collaboration
B. server migration pack
C. enhanced networking
D. headless server deployment
E. integration with LDAP services
Answer:AE

10. What can you do from the Insight Display on a c-Class BladeSystem enclosure?
A. Access the Health Summary of the enclosure.
B. Change IP addresses of iLO 2 on individual blades.
C. Power individual blades on or off.
D. Power the enclosure on or off.
Answer:A

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1. Which statement about volumes is correct? (Select three.)
A. Volumes can be part of different clusters.
B. Each volume belongs to a single cluster.
C. For database applications, different volumes should be used for database files and log files.
D. Volumes in the same cluster must have the same replication level.
E. Volumes can be migrated to different clusters within the same management group.
F. Additional volumes require additional storage nodes in the cluster.
Answer: BCE

2. Where is RAID configured in HP LeftHand SAN solutions?
A. at the volume level
B. at the storage node level
C. at the cluster level
D. at the management group level
Answer: B

3. Which types of host bus adapters (HBA) can be used for the iSCSI protocol? (Select two.)
A. SW iSCSI initiator without a NIC (network interface card)
B. iSCSI HBA with TCP offload engine (TOE)
C. Fibre Channel HBA
D. NIC with SW iSCSI initiator
E. iSCSI HBA with TCP TOE SW iSCSI initiator
Answer: BD

4. Which statements about iSCSI are correct? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI does not offer any security features.
B. iSCSI installation is less complex than Fibre Channel installation.
C. iSCSI is only supported by Microsoft Windows operating systems.
D. iSCSI is available for the most common OS platforms.
E. iSCSI is a parallel data protocol.
Answer: BD

5. Which statement is true about the iSCSI initiator?
A. The iSCSI initiator is only active during read operations.
B. The iSCSI initiator represents the LUNs.
C. The iSCSI initiator resides on the host and connects to the targets.
D. The iSCSI initiator is a software package running on the host.
Answer: C

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6. Which statements about HP LeftHand SAN replication levels are correct? (Select three.)
A. Copies are located on different clusters.
B. Redundant copies of blocks reside on different storage nodes.
C. Performance improves as the number of copies increases.
D. Up to four copies can be created.
E. The replication level is defined per storage node.
F. The replication level cannot exceed the number of storage nodes in the cluster.
Answer: BDF

7. What are typical examples of snapshot utilization? (Select three.)
A. replacement for traditional backups
B. protection against disk failures
C. protection against multiple hardware failures
D. protection against manual data deletion
E. file level restore without tape or backup software
F. source volumes for backup creation
Answer: DEF

8. Which statements about remote copy are correct? (Select two.)
A. Remote copy is always thin provisioned.
B. Remote copy can be synchronous and asynchronous.
C. Remote copy is an asynchronous replication of a volume.
D. Remote copies cannot be mounted.
E. Remote copy is asynchronous replication between different clusters only.
Answer:AC

9. for what are IP SANs best suited? (Select three.)
A. applications requiring minimum latency
B. environments that require Fibre Channel infrastructure
C. high availability environments
D. geographic disaster recovery
E. environments with existing Ethernet infrastructure
F. non-shared storage implementation
Answer: CDE

10. Which statement about Virtual IP Load Balancing (VIPLB) is correct?
A. VIPLB is part of the Windows Solution pack.
B. VIPLB is a software driver installed on the host.
C. VIPLB replaces the iSCSI redirect function.
D. VIPLB directs iSCSI communication to the least busy storage node in the cluster.
Answer: D

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“Certification I “, also known as HP0-J22 exam, is a HP certification.

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 82 Q&A to your HP0-J22 exam preparation. In the HP0-J22 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Certification I helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

Exam Details
The Certification I exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate Certification I certification. The Certification I (HP0-J22) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO)

Free HP0-J22 Demo Download:
Part: A
1:
You want an HP product that allows you to present 4.8TB to an OpenVMS system and take up only 2U of rack space. Which HP StorageWorks product should you use?
A.HP StorageWorks MSA500
B.HP StorageWorks MSA70
C.HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc
D.HP StorageWorks MSA60

Answer: D

2:
When does the data become available to the application during the MSA2000 snapshot rollback process?
A.when the rollback process has completed
B.immediately
C.while the rollback process completes in the background
D.after a restart of the application

Answer: C

3:
You are attempting to restore a saved configuration file. You have selected Manage > Utilities > Configuration Utilities > Restore Config File inside HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management Utility. What do you select next?
A.Master Controller
B.IP Address option
C.Next
D.previously saved configuration file

Answer: B

4:
What are features of the MSA2000? (Select two.)
A.remote data replication
B.snapshots and clones
C.Fibre Channel backend bus
D.SAS backend bus
E.
three year warranty for SATA drives

Answer: B D

5:
Click the Task button. Match each customer requirement with the appropriate HP StorageWorks solution.

6:
What is an MSA2000 master volume?
A.a volume for fast data recovery
B.a database volume for user data
C.a volume for snapshot data
D.a source volume for snapshots

Answer: D

7:
What is required to automatically delete MSA2000 snapshots?
A.a successfully completed full backup
B.a scheduled snap delete job
C.a snap pool policy
D.a snapshot alive limit

Answer: C

8:
Which multi-path drivers are included in the MPIO driver package? (Select three.)
A.bus driver
B.port filter driver
C.Secure Path driver
D.system state driver
E.disk driver replacement
F.matrix storage manager driver

Answer: A B E

9:
After a power outage, an MSA2000 controller powers up while some member disks of a RAID set are still unavailable. Which disaster recovery function attempts to get the associated LUN online?
A.Refresh Disk Blocks
B.Dequarantine Virtual Disk
C.Trust Virtual Disk
D.Re-Initialize Disk Blocks

Answer: C

10:
What is an MSA2000 virtual disk?
A.a group of disk drives with a maximum capacity of 2TB
B.a logical unit created from a storage pool of contiguous blocks
C.a group of disk drives configured as any RAID set
D.a logical unit consisting of up to eight drives in a RAID 5 configuration

Answer: C

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11:
What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains pre-allocated reserve space for snapshot data?
A.rollback pool
B.snap pool
C.master volume
D.target volume

Answer: B

12:
Which data are included when saving the configuration to a file? (Select three.)
A.virtual disk configurations
B.volume configurations
C.host port configurations
D.switch configurations
E.system configurations
F.disk configurations

Answer: C E F

13:
Your customer has a requirement for fiber-attached block level storage and remote data replication. Which HP StorageWorks product best meets this requirement?
A.HP StorageWorks MSA60
B.HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc
C.HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc with enhanced controllers
D.HP StorageWorks EVA4400

Answer: D

14:
Click the Task button. Match each MSA2000 RAID level with its description.

15:
In which Windows mode are the MPIO drivers implemented?
A.real
B.user
C.secured
D.kernel

Answer: D

16:
What is the default read-ahead cache policy of an MSA2000?
A.dynamic calculation of the optimum chunk size
B.one chunk for the first and one stripe for all subsequent sequential read operations
C.disabled read-ahead cache
D.64KB for all read operations

Answer: B

17:
Which form of snapshot creation is used in the MSA2000?
A.image copy
B.copy on write
C.copy after write
D.block mirror

Answer: B

18:
To which level of the storage configuration hierarchy do the read and write cache policies apply?
A.volume
B.physical disk
C.virtual disk
D.array

Answer: A

19:
What is the minimum port count on an HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN switch?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32

Answer: B

20:
Which MSA2000 feature disables cache mirroring in active-active mode and might improve the I/O performance?
A.super-sequential cache mode
B.write-through cache mode
C.independent cache performance mode
D.write-back cache mode

Answer: C

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