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see the DEMO first:

1. Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access

points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)

A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access

point GUI

B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the

infrastructure access points through multicast

C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority

number

D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number, followed by MAC

address

E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC

address

Answer:BD

2. Which companion switch is recommended to be installed with Cisco Smart Business

Communications System?

A. C2950

B. C3750

C. ESW 500

D. SRW224G4

Answer:C

3.

Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web

connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco

Configuration Professional configuration shown in the exhibit. What is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly

B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly

C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the collection

D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Answer:D

4. In which of these phase is a customer ¯ s curr ent net wor k i nfr astr uct ur e assessed

A. plan

B. design

C. implement

D. prepare

Answer:A

5. What are two ways to secure traffic across a network? (Choose two)

A. Cisco ISR G2

B. Identify-management devices

C. ACLs

D. Firewalls

E. VPN connection

F. VLANs

Answer:DE

6. You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which

command should you enter?

A. Show ip hsrp active

B. Show standby active

C. Show standby

D. Show active

Answer:C

7. What do radio-wave radiation patterns allow you to determine when you are implementing

wireless networks?

A. Size of the coverage area

B. Which antenna is being used

C. Temperature of the coverage area

D. Shape of the coverage area

Answer:A

8. Which command assigns a cost value of 17

to a switch port?

A. Spanning-tree interface fastethernet 5/8 17

B. Spanning-tress portcost 17

C. Spanning-tree port cost 17

D. Spanning-tree cost 17}

Answer:D

9. Which command displays the routing information that will be used to move data between

VLANs on a router on a disk?

A. Router# show ip protocols

B. Router# show ip route

C. Router# show vlan[vlan_ID]

D. Router# show vlan route

Answer:B

10. What were two primary design purpose for ISRs? (Choose two)

A. To provide a centralized threat database for IPS sensors

B. To bring IP technology, voice mail, email, and firewall services to the end user

C. To implement and to integrate fully network services such as security, WAN routing,

and Ethernet switching

D. To offer Fast Ethernet and 10 Gigabit Ethernet as a high-speed routing platform

E. To be a next-generation, high-performance routing platform

F. To provide all security-management functions in one high-performance device

Answer:BC

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Test4actual update the 642-374 !

The 642-374 CXFS exam is intended primarily for Cisco Channel Partner Systems or Sales Engineers. The exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of:

1.Assessing customers’ wireless, security, unified communications and routing and switching requirements, providing technical descriptions of solutions, identifying specific advantages of selecting Cisco solutions and developing detailed network designs for a customer’s network requirements.
2.The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach: How to successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies.

Candidates can take the Cisco Express Foundation for Systems Engineers v1.3 course on the Partner Education Connection to prepare for the exam.

This exam is 75 minutes of examination time, needs to test 60-70 questions! We have updated the exam cost a fortune, many people are looking for cheap item bank, now that we provide the latest, because we own the VUE center!

Before purchasing, you can look under the DEMO, and then make a decision!

1. A potential client wants inexpensive remote access and fast deployment of new sites. Which two

options would you focus on? (Choose two)

A. ACL management

B. cable and DSL route models

C. Cisco AnyConnect and SSL VPN

D. CBAC

E. remote security

Answer:BC

2. When should you run multiple protocols?

A. when you want to decrease the complexity of the network

B. when you want easier optimization

C. when you migrate from an old IGP to a new IGP

D. when you want higher efficiency

Answer:C

3. Which statement concerning the Active/Active failover feature is correct?

A. ASA security Appliance failover pair must have either an Unrestricted and UR license or a UR and

FO-A/A license to be able to support Active/Active failover

B. If an active security context within the primary security appliance fails , the status of the primary

security appliance unit changes to failed , while the secondary failover security appliance unit transitions

to active

C. Active/Active failover is supported in multiple mode

configuration only

D. Active/Active failover supports site-to-site IPSec VPN stateful failover

Answer:C

4. Cisco ISR Routers offer which three of these security benefits?(Choose three)

A. Onboard VPN accelerator

B. events correlation and proactive response

C. high-performance AIM VPN modules

D. virtual firewall

E. Cisco IOS firewall and IOS IPS

F. transparent firewall

Answer:ACE

5. What is used to avoid power drops and running power to access points?

A. Cisco Aironet 1140 series

B. End-point PSE

C. Midspan PSE

D. PoE-enabled switches

Answer:D

6. Which two WAN interfaces does the Cisco SRP 520 Series support? (Choose two)

A. Fibre Channel

B. ADSL2+

C. serial

D. Fast Ethernet

E. passive optical network(PON)

Answer:BD

7. A customer is considering purchasing either a Cisco Catalyst 2960 or Cisco Catalyst Express

500.Which feature can be only found on the Catalyst 2960?

A. 48 Ethernet 10/100 ports

B. Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet connectivity

C. dual-purpose copper or fiber uplinks

D. standalone fixed-configuration Layer 2 switching

Answer:A

8. How does the Cisco Small Business Pro Service differ from the Cisco Small Business Pro Warranty?

A. Access to Cisco Small Business Support Community

B. device-level warranty

C. Cisco Small Business Pro products only

D. speed of hardware replacement

Answer:A

9. Which combination of port is available on the Cisco SPA 8800 voice gateway?

A. one station port and one trunk port (1xFXS and 1xFXO)

B. two station ports (2xFXS)

C. four station ports and four trunk ports (4xFXS and 4xFXO)

D. eight station ports (8xFXS)

Answer:C

10. Which pre-sales SMART design documents are available to help you implement and install a solution?

(Choose three)

A. Quick Quoting tool

B. Small Business Product Guide

C. Smart Business Communications system

D. Solution Profile

E. Overview presentation

F. Cisco Configuration Assistant

Answer:BDE

Other exam : 642-384

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The Product Description

Exam Name: Unified Communications Contact Center Express Implementation(UCCX)

Questions and Answers:89Q&A

Update Time:2010-8-30

Price:$169.00

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1. Which step can be used to trap runtime script errors and recover gracefully?                                                                                                                                           

A. set   

B. call subflow 

C. on exception goto 

D. get reporting statistic

Answer: C

2. which three tasks are supported by the cisco supervisor desktop?

A. push a web page to an agent’s cisco agent desktop  

B. chat with an agent

C. log in an agent  

D. change an agent’s state to ready

E. send an email to an agent

Answer: ABD

3. A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?

A. a CTI port to the custormer

B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer

C. the personal line of the agent to the customer

D. a CTI port the agent then redirected to the customer

Answer: D

4. Presence integration is a Cisco unified CCX teature available in which of these packages?

A. premium, enhanced,and standard  

B. premium only

C. premium with high availability only

D. premium and enhanced\

Answer: A

5. which step would you use to get information about the numbet of contacts currently in queue?

A. get contact info

B. get session info

C. get call contact info

D. get reporting statistics

Answer: D

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6. what is the maximux number of concurrent emails an agent can have ?

A. 1 email 

B. 2 emails 

C. 5 email s

D. 10 emails

Answer: C

7. how do you remove a phantom call (sometimes also referred to as ghost call) that is stuck in queue in the CSQ real-time report? 

A. log out all agents 

B. restart the browser-based real-time reporting client

C. select the phantom call from the list of waiting contacts and select clear contact from the tools menu

D. reset the real-time reports

Answer: C

8. if you have not configured the database subsystem,what is the status of the database subsystem on the control center page of appadmin? 

A. partial service

B. out of service

C. shutdown

D. not configured

Answer: B

9. which three tasks can an agent perform using email? 

A. save the response as draft  

B. send the response to supervisor

C. transfer the amail to another CSQ

D. transfer the email to another agent

E. delete the email                                                                F. mark the email as junk        

Answer: A C D

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    10. which type of information is available from the cisco unified contact center express control center?

A. database repliccation status

B. systerm parameters configuration

C. date and time of most recent failure

D. cisco unified communications manager cluster status

Answer: A

If you are interested, you can also look at the following subjects

650-195  650-177  646-671

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The 640-816 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.

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Exam Name: Unified Communication for System Engineers Exam
“IP Communications “, also known as 642-104 exam, is a Cisco certification.
Preparing for the 642-104 exam? Searching 642-104 Test Questions, 642-104 Practice Exam, 642-104 Dumps?

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Questions and Answers:70Q&A
Update Time:2010-4-10
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Exam Details
The CCNA exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA certification. The CCNA (640-802) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 640-802
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers:323Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-16
Price:$89.00
Exam Details
The CCNA exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA certification. The CCNA (640-802) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Exam : Cisco 642-513
Title : Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent Exam (HIPS)
Version : Demo
1. Which of these is a reason for using groups to administer Agents?
A. to link similar devices together
B. to complete configuration changes on groups instead of hosts
C. to complete the same configuration on like items
D. to apply the same policy to hosts with similar security requirements
Answer: D
2. Which three items make up rules? (Choose three.)
A. variables
B. applications
C. application classes
D. rule modules
E. policies
F. actions
Answer: ACF
3. Which action do you take when you are ready to deploy your CSA configuration to systems?
A. select
B. clone
C. deploy
D. generate rules
Answer: D
4. Which one of the five phases of an attack attempts to become resident on a target?
A. probe phase
B. penetrate phase
C. persist phase
D. propagate phase
E. paralyze phase
Answer: C
5. What is the purpose of the Audit Trail function?
A. to generate a report listing events matching certain criteria, sorted by event severity
B. to generate a report listing events matching certain criteria, sorted by group
C. to generate a report showing detailed information for selected groups
D. to display a detailed history of configuration changes
Answer: D
6. In which type of rules are network address sets used?
A. COM component access control rules
B. connection rate limit rules
C. network access control rules
D. file control rules
E. file access control rules
Answer: C
7.Which three of these does the buffer overflow rule detect on a UNIX operating system, based on the type of memory space involved? (Choose three.)
A. location space
B. stack space
C. slot space
D. data space
E. heap space
F. file space
Answer: BDE
8. When should you use preconfigured application classes for application deployment investigation?
A. never
B. always
C. only for specific applications
D. only when applications require detailed analysis
Answer: A

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9. Which systems with specific operating systems are automatically placed into mandatory groups containing rules for that operating system? (Choose three.)
A. OS2
B. HPUX
C. Solaris
D. Mac OS
E. Linux
F. Windows
Answer: CEF
10. What is the purpose of network access control rules?
A. to control access to network services
B. to control access to network addresses
C. to control access to both network services and network addresses
D. to control access to networks
Answer: C
11. What is the purpose of the Compare tool?
A. to save data that has been configured
B. to compare individual rules
C. to compare individual rule modules
D. to compare and merge configurations
Answer: D
12. If a Solaris or Windows system is not rebooted after CSA installation, which three rules are only enforced when new files are opened, new processes are invoked, or new socket connections are made?(Choose three.)
A. COM component access rules
B. network shield rules
C. buffer overflow rules
D. network access control rules
E. file access control rules
F. demand memory access rules
Answer: CDE
13. For which operating system is the network shield rule available?
A. OS2
B. Windows
C. Linux
D. Solaris
Answer: D
14. What is the maximum number of characters that a policy name can contain?
A. 24
B. 32
C. 48
D. 64
Answer: D
15. What information is logged for registry access control?
A. port and direction
B. registry key
C. registry access events
D. PROGID/CLSID
Answer: B

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-513
Exam Name: Securing Hosts Using Cisco Security Agent Exam (HIPS)
Questions and Answers:69Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-16
Price:$79.00
Exam Details
The CCSP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCSP certification. The CCSP (642-513) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Exam : Cisco 642-383
Title :Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Update : Demo

1.Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit changerelated incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system
Answer: C
2. Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.
Answer: A
3. What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA
Answer: AC
4. Which statement correctly describes the keyswitch model of deployment for call processing?
A.All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line.
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.
Answer: A
5. Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a stepbystep plan that details the installation and servicecommission tasks required in order to create a controlledimplementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executing proofofconcept tests, validating highlevel infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. installing, configuring, and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer’s infrastructure security system
Answer: D
6. A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. pointtomultipoint
D. hubandspoke
Answer: D
7.How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user’s IP phone?
A. Press the “i” button.
B. Press the “Settings” button.
C. Press the “Services” button.
D. Press the “Messages” button.
Answer: D
8. In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Answer: A

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9. Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production
E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations signoff
Answer: C
10. What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D.Cisco 871W
Answer: B
11. Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two.)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI
Answer: AC
12. Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. hostbased intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C.all network devices are timesynchronized
D. SNMP community readwrite strings are configured to allow for total management access
Answer: C
13. In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. plan
B. design
C. implement
D. prepare
Answer: A
14. In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. plan
B. design
C. implement
D. prepare
Answer: A
15. In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information.
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.
Answer: A

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 69 Q&A to your 642-383 exam preparation. In the 642-383 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-383
Exam Name: Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Questions and Answers:69Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-16
Price:$89.00
Exam Details
The Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification certification. The Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification (642-383) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.