see the DEMO first:

1. Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access

points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)

A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access

point GUI

B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the

infrastructure access points through multicast

C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority

number

D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number, followed by MAC

address

E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC

address

Answer:BD

2. Which companion switch is recommended to be installed with Cisco Smart Business

Communications System?

A. C2950

B. C3750

C. ESW 500

D. SRW224G4

Answer:C

3.

Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web

connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco

Configuration Professional configuration shown in the exhibit. What is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly

B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly

C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the collection

D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Answer:D

4. In which of these phase is a customer ¯ s curr ent net wor k i nfr astr uct ur e assessed

A. plan

B. design

C. implement

D. prepare

Answer:A

5. What are two ways to secure traffic across a network? (Choose two)

A. Cisco ISR G2

B. Identify-management devices

C. ACLs

D. Firewalls

E. VPN connection

F. VLANs

Answer:DE

6. You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which

command should you enter?

A. Show ip hsrp active

B. Show standby active

C. Show standby

D. Show active

Answer:C

7. What do radio-wave radiation patterns allow you to determine when you are implementing

wireless networks?

A. Size of the coverage area

B. Which antenna is being used

C. Temperature of the coverage area

D. Shape of the coverage area

Answer:A

8. Which command assigns a cost value of 17

to a switch port?

A. Spanning-tree interface fastethernet 5/8 17

B. Spanning-tress portcost 17

C. Spanning-tree port cost 17

D. Spanning-tree cost 17}

Answer:D

9. Which command displays the routing information that will be used to move data between

VLANs on a router on a disk?

A. Router# show ip protocols

B. Router# show ip route

C. Router# show vlan[vlan_ID]

D. Router# show vlan route

Answer:B

10. What were two primary design purpose for ISRs? (Choose two)

A. To provide a centralized threat database for IPS sensors

B. To bring IP technology, voice mail, email, and firewall services to the end user

C. To implement and to integrate fully network services such as security, WAN routing,

and Ethernet switching

D. To offer Fast Ethernet and 10 Gigabit Ethernet as a high-speed routing platform

E. To be a next-generation, high-performance routing platform

F. To provide all security-management functions in one high-performance device

Answer:BC

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The 642-374 CXFS exam is intended primarily for Cisco Channel Partner Systems or Sales Engineers. The exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of:

1.Assessing customers’ wireless, security, unified communications and routing and switching requirements, providing technical descriptions of solutions, identifying specific advantages of selecting Cisco solutions and developing detailed network designs for a customer’s network requirements.
2.The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach: How to successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies.

Candidates can take the Cisco Express Foundation for Systems Engineers v1.3 course on the Partner Education Connection to prepare for the exam.

This exam is 75 minutes of examination time, needs to test 60-70 questions! We have updated the exam cost a fortune, many people are looking for cheap item bank, now that we provide the latest, because we own the VUE center!

Before purchasing, you can look under the DEMO, and then make a decision!

1. A potential client wants inexpensive remote access and fast deployment of new sites. Which two

options would you focus on? (Choose two)

A. ACL management

B. cable and DSL route models

C. Cisco AnyConnect and SSL VPN

D. CBAC

E. remote security

Answer:BC

2. When should you run multiple protocols?

A. when you want to decrease the complexity of the network

B. when you want easier optimization

C. when you migrate from an old IGP to a new IGP

D. when you want higher efficiency

Answer:C

3. Which statement concerning the Active/Active failover feature is correct?

A. ASA security Appliance failover pair must have either an Unrestricted and UR license or a UR and

FO-A/A license to be able to support Active/Active failover

B. If an active security context within the primary security appliance fails , the status of the primary

security appliance unit changes to failed , while the secondary failover security appliance unit transitions

to active

C. Active/Active failover is supported in multiple mode

configuration only

D. Active/Active failover supports site-to-site IPSec VPN stateful failover

Answer:C

4. Cisco ISR Routers offer which three of these security benefits?(Choose three)

A. Onboard VPN accelerator

B. events correlation and proactive response

C. high-performance AIM VPN modules

D. virtual firewall

E. Cisco IOS firewall and IOS IPS

F. transparent firewall

Answer:ACE

5. What is used to avoid power drops and running power to access points?

A. Cisco Aironet 1140 series

B. End-point PSE

C. Midspan PSE

D. PoE-enabled switches

Answer:D

6. Which two WAN interfaces does the Cisco SRP 520 Series support? (Choose two)

A. Fibre Channel

B. ADSL2+

C. serial

D. Fast Ethernet

E. passive optical network(PON)

Answer:BD

7. A customer is considering purchasing either a Cisco Catalyst 2960 or Cisco Catalyst Express

500.Which feature can be only found on the Catalyst 2960?

A. 48 Ethernet 10/100 ports

B. Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet connectivity

C. dual-purpose copper or fiber uplinks

D. standalone fixed-configuration Layer 2 switching

Answer:A

8. How does the Cisco Small Business Pro Service differ from the Cisco Small Business Pro Warranty?

A. Access to Cisco Small Business Support Community

B. device-level warranty

C. Cisco Small Business Pro products only

D. speed of hardware replacement

Answer:A

9. Which combination of port is available on the Cisco SPA 8800 voice gateway?

A. one station port and one trunk port (1xFXS and 1xFXO)

B. two station ports (2xFXS)

C. four station ports and four trunk ports (4xFXS and 4xFXO)

D. eight station ports (8xFXS)

Answer:C

10. Which pre-sales SMART design documents are available to help you implement and install a solution?

(Choose three)

A. Quick Quoting tool

B. Small Business Product Guide

C. Smart Business Communications system

D. Solution Profile

E. Overview presentation

F. Cisco Configuration Assistant

Answer:BDE

Other exam : 642-384

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Still as the same, look at it under the DEMO

1. You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer has a single volume.

You install 15 applications and customize the environment.

You complete the following actions:.Create an export by using Windows Easy Transfer.Create a system image by using Backup and Restore.Install the User State Migration Tool (USMT) and run Scanstate

The disk on the computer fails. You replace the disk.

You need to restore the environment to the previous state.

What should you do?

A. Install Windows 7, install USMT, and then run Loadstate.

B. Install Windows 7 and then import the Windows Easy Transfer package.

C. Start the computer from a Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) disk and then run Bcdboot.exe.

D. Start the computer from a Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) disk and then restore the system image.

Answer: D

2. Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. You have two computers named Computer1 and Computer2 that run Windows 7. Both computers are members of the domain.

From Computer1, you can recover all Encrypting File System (EFS) encrypted files for users in the domain.

You need to ensure that you can recover all EFS encrypted files from Computer2.

What should you do?

A. On Computer1, back up %systemroot%\DigitalLocker. On Computer2, restore %systemroot%\DigitalLocker.

B. On Computer1, export the data recovery agent certificate. On Computer2, import the data recovery agent certificate.

C. On Computer1, run Secedit.exe and specify the /export parameter. On Computer2, run Secedit.exe and specify the /import parameter.

D. On Computer1, run Cipher.exe and specify the /removeuser parameter. On Computer2, run Cipher.exe and specify the /adduser parameter.

Answer: B

3. You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer has System Protection enabled.

You need to retain only the last System Protection snapshot of the computer. All other snapshots must be deleted.

What should you do?

A. Run Disk Cleanup for Programs and Features.

B. Run Disk Cleanup for System Restore and Shadow Copies.

C. From the System Protection Restore settings, select Turn off System Restore.

D. From the System Protection Restore settings, select Only restore previous versions of files.

Answer: B

4. You have a computer that runs Windows 7.

You have a system image of the computer.

You need to restore a single file from the system image. You must achieve this goal in the minimum amount of time.

What should you do first?

A. From Disk Management, select Attach VHD.

B. From Backup and Restore, select Restore my files.

C. Restart the computer and run System Restore.

D. Restart the computer and run System Image Recovery.

Answer: A

5. You have a computer that runs Windows 7.

You need to identify how much disk space is occupied by previous versions.

What should you do?

A. At a command prompt, run Diskpart.

B. At a command prompt, run Vaultcmd.

C. From System, view the System Protection settings.

D. From the properties of drive C, view the previous versions settings.

Answer: C

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6. You have a computer that runs Windows 7.

You manually create a system restore point.

You need to restore a copy of a file stored on drive C from two days ago. You must achieve this goal in the minimum amount of time.

What should you do?

A. From Recovery, select System Restore.

B. From Backup and Restore, select Restore my files.

C. From the command prompt, run Wbadmin get items.

D. From the properties of the file, select Previous Versions.

Answer: D

7. You have a computer that runs Windows 7.

You add a new hard disk drive to the computer and create a new NTFS partition.

You need to ensure that you can use the Previous Versions feature on the new drive.

What should you do?

A. From Disk Management, convert the new disk to a dynamic disk.

B. From System Properties, configure the System Protection settings.

C. From System and Security, enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).

D. From the properties of the new drive, create a share and modify the caching settings.

Answer: B

8. You have a computer that contains the folders shows in the following table.

You accidentally delete the Data1 folder.

You need to restore the contents of the Data1 folder. The solution must not overwrite any changes to the Data2 folder.

What should you do?

A. From Recovery, restore a system restore point.

B. From the Previous Versions tab of the User1 folder, click Copy.

C. From the Sharing tab of the User1 folder, modify the Caching settings.

D. Start the computer and then press F8. Restore the Last Known Good Configuration.

Answer: B

9. You need to back up your Encrypting File System (EFS) certificate. You must achieve this goal in the minimum amount of time.

What should you do?

A. Run Cipher.exe /x.

B. Run Ntbackup.exe /p.

C. From Backup and Restore, click Back up now.

D. From Backup and Restore, click Create a system image.

Answer: A

10. You need to reduce the amount of space currently being used to store system restore points.

What should you do?

A. Run Disk Cleanup.

B. Run Msconfig.exe.

C. Configure disk quotas.

D. Configure Windows Backup.

Answer: A

Had read DEMO yes? Do you found it was been updated it? Interested? Why wait? Click here to start your journey by 70-680

Product Description

Exam Number/Code: NS0-153
Exam Name: Network Appliance

Questions&Answers:76Q&A
Update Time:2010-9-2
Price:$99.00

Look the DEMO first :

1. NTFS allows file access based on ___________.

A.NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.

B.SID and password.

C.NT ACLs and SID.

D.UNIX permissions.

ANSWER: C

2. Which two are used for creating LUNs on a storage system? (Choose two.)

A.lun create

B.lun setup

C.lun config

D.lun make

ANSWER: AB

3. What mechanism allows you to make LUNs available to some initiators and unavailable to others?

A.LUN masking

B.LUN hiding

C.LUN grouping

D.LUN cloning

ANSWER: A

4. An iSCSI or FC SAN implementation provides _____ access to LUNs.

A.file

B.block

C.VLD

D.VIIP

ANSWER: B

5. Which are characteristics of an iSCSI or FCP SAN implementation? (Choose three.)

A.LUNs can be accessed using the iSCSI protocol.

B.LUNs can be accessed using the FCP protocol.

C.A LUN can be converted into a VLD.

D.Block services are associated with an iSCSI or FCP SAN environment.

ANSWER: ABD

Ns0-154 : Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator

Product Description:
Exam Name: Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 – BETA
Questions and Answers: 198Q & A
Update Time :2010-8-28

Waiting for? Click here to start your Symantec certification of the road!
Still hesitant? Look at it under the DEMO:

1. Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)

A.Endpoint Discover

B.Endpoint Prevent

C.Network Monitor

D.Enforce

E.Network Prevent

Answer: DE

2. How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident

response team?

A.Match count thresholds are set.

B.More than one policy is enabled.

C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.

D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.

Answer: A

3. Which response rule action will be ignored when using an Exact Data Matching (EDM) policy?

A.Endpoint: Notify

B.Network: Block HTTP/HTTPS

C.Protect: Quarantine File

D.Network: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content

Answer: A

4. Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select

two.)

A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images

B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system

C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously

D.configure, test, and tune filters

E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed

Answer: AD

5. Which plug-in can connect to Microsoft Active Directory (AD)?

A.CSV Lookup

B.Live LDAP Lookup

C.Active Directory Integration Lookup

D.Directory Server Lookup

Answer: B

6. Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?

A.date fields

B.numeric fields with fewer than five digits

C.column names in the first row

D.country, state, or province names

Answer: C

7. What are two valid reasons for adding notes to incidents? (Select two.)

A.to provide incident detail to policy violators

B.to allow the next responder to more quickly prioritize incidents for review

C.to allow the next responder to more quickly understand the incident history

D.to provide detail when closing an incident

E.to provide incident detail for report filtering

Answer: CD

8. What must be running on a Linux Enforce server to enable the Symantec Data Loss Prevention user

interface?

A.selinux

B.iptables

C.xwindows

D.ssh

Answer: B

9. Which file on the endpoint machine stores messages that are temporarily cached when using two-tier

policies such as IDM or EDM?

A.is.ead

B.ttds.ead

C.ks.ead

D.cg.ead

Answer: B

10. Which detection server setting enables detecting text within markup language tags?

A.ContentExtraction.MarkupAsText

B.ContentExtraction.EnableMetaData

C.Detection.EncodingGuessingEnabled

D.Lexer.Validate

Answer: A

Do you want to pass the Cisco 642-165 exam ? This braindumps was updated in 2010-8-31, and also it is the world’s first offer.

The Product Description

Exam Name: Unified Communications Contact Center Express Implementation(UCCX)

Questions and Answers:89Q&A

Update Time:2010-8-30

Price:$169.00

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1. Which step can be used to trap runtime script errors and recover gracefully?                                                                                                                                           

A. set   

B. call subflow 

C. on exception goto 

D. get reporting statistic

Answer: C

2. which three tasks are supported by the cisco supervisor desktop?

A. push a web page to an agent’s cisco agent desktop  

B. chat with an agent

C. log in an agent  

D. change an agent’s state to ready

E. send an email to an agent

Answer: ABD

3. A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?

A. a CTI port to the custormer

B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer

C. the personal line of the agent to the customer

D. a CTI port the agent then redirected to the customer

Answer: D

4. Presence integration is a Cisco unified CCX teature available in which of these packages?

A. premium, enhanced,and standard  

B. premium only

C. premium with high availability only

D. premium and enhanced\

Answer: A

5. which step would you use to get information about the numbet of contacts currently in queue?

A. get contact info

B. get session info

C. get call contact info

D. get reporting statistics

Answer: D

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6. what is the maximux number of concurrent emails an agent can have ?

A. 1 email 

B. 2 emails 

C. 5 email s

D. 10 emails

Answer: C

7. how do you remove a phantom call (sometimes also referred to as ghost call) that is stuck in queue in the CSQ real-time report? 

A. log out all agents 

B. restart the browser-based real-time reporting client

C. select the phantom call from the list of waiting contacts and select clear contact from the tools menu

D. reset the real-time reports

Answer: C

8. if you have not configured the database subsystem,what is the status of the database subsystem on the control center page of appadmin? 

A. partial service

B. out of service

C. shutdown

D. not configured

Answer: B

9. which three tasks can an agent perform using email? 

A. save the response as draft  

B. send the response to supervisor

C. transfer the amail to another CSQ

D. transfer the email to another agent

E. delete the email                                                                F. mark the email as junk        

Answer: A C D

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    10. which type of information is available from the cisco unified contact center express control center?

A. database repliccation status

B. systerm parameters configuration

C. date and time of most recent failure

D. cisco unified communications manager cluster status

Answer: A

If you are interested, you can also look at the following subjects

650-195  650-177  646-671

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920-344 Exam
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Exam Number/Code : 920-344
Exam Name : BCM50/450 Rls. 5.0 Sales Engineering
Questions and Answers : 62 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-07-07
Price: $ 98.00

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