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Test4actual 642-384 braindumps
Perhaps many people took the 642-384, but failed? As 642-384 questions have also been changed, and now the other selling out was the old, so can not help you through! However, there is very good news that test4actual also updated the exam through our testing, he can help you pass the exam! However, customers can take a look at our DEMO, after reading our item bank will confirm the accuracy!
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see the DEMO first:
1. Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access
points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access
point GUI
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the
infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority
number
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number, followed by MAC
address
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC
address
Answer:BD
2. Which companion switch is recommended to be installed with Cisco Smart Business
Communications System?
A. C2950
B. C3750
C. ESW 500
D. SRW224G4
Answer:C
3.
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web
connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco
Configuration Professional configuration shown in the exhibit. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the collection
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly
Answer:D
4. In which of these phase is a customer ¯ s curr ent net wor k i nfr astr uct ur e assessed
A. plan
B. design
C. implement
D. prepare
Answer:A
5. What are two ways to secure traffic across a network? (Choose two)
A. Cisco ISR G2
B. Identify-management devices
C. ACLs
D. Firewalls
E. VPN connection
F. VLANs
Answer:DE
6. You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which
command should you enter?
A. Show ip hsrp active
B. Show standby active
C. Show standby
D. Show active
Answer:C
7. What do radio-wave radiation patterns allow you to determine when you are implementing
wireless networks?
A. Size of the coverage area
B. Which antenna is being used
C. Temperature of the coverage area
D. Shape of the coverage area
Answer:A
8. Which command assigns a cost value of 17
to a switch port?
A. Spanning-tree interface fastethernet 5/8 17
B. Spanning-tress portcost 17
C. Spanning-tree port cost 17
D. Spanning-tree cost 17}
Answer:D
9. Which command displays the routing information that will be used to move data between
VLANs on a router on a disk?
A. Router# show ip protocols
B. Router# show ip route
C. Router# show vlan[vlan_ID]
D. Router# show vlan route
Answer:B
10. What were two primary design purpose for ISRs? (Choose two)
A. To provide a centralized threat database for IPS sensors
B. To bring IP technology, voice mail, email, and firewall services to the end user
C. To implement and to integrate fully network services such as security, WAN routing,
and Ethernet switching
D. To offer Fast Ethernet and 10 Gigabit Ethernet as a high-speed routing platform
E. To be a next-generation, high-performance routing platform
F. To provide all security-management functions in one high-performance device
Answer:BC
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642-374 has been updated in test4actual!
Test4actual update the 642-374 !
The 642-374 CXFS exam is intended primarily for Cisco Channel Partner Systems or Sales Engineers. The exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of:
1.Assessing customers’ wireless, security, unified communications and routing and switching requirements, providing technical descriptions of solutions, identifying specific advantages of selecting Cisco solutions and developing detailed network designs for a customer’s network requirements.
2.The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach: How to successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies.
Candidates can take the Cisco Express Foundation for Systems Engineers v1.3 course on the Partner Education Connection to prepare for the exam.
This exam is 75 minutes of examination time, needs to test 60-70 questions! We have updated the exam cost a fortune, many people are looking for cheap item bank, now that we provide the latest, because we own the VUE center!
Before purchasing, you can look under the DEMO, and then make a decision!
1. A potential client wants inexpensive remote access and fast deployment of new sites. Which two
options would you focus on? (Choose two)
A. ACL management
B. cable and DSL route models
C. Cisco AnyConnect and SSL VPN
D. CBAC
E. remote security
Answer:BC
2. When should you run multiple protocols?
A. when you want to decrease the complexity of the network
B. when you want easier optimization
C. when you migrate from an old IGP to a new IGP
D. when you want higher efficiency
Answer:C
3. Which statement concerning the Active/Active failover feature is correct?
A. ASA security Appliance failover pair must have either an Unrestricted and UR license or a UR and
FO-A/A license to be able to support Active/Active failover
B. If an active security context within the primary security appliance fails , the status of the primary
security appliance unit changes to failed , while the secondary failover security appliance unit transitions
to active
C. Active/Active failover is supported in multiple mode
configuration only
D. Active/Active failover supports site-to-site IPSec VPN stateful failover
Answer:C
4. Cisco ISR Routers offer which three of these security benefits?(Choose three)
A. Onboard VPN accelerator
B. events correlation and proactive response
C. high-performance AIM VPN modules
D. virtual firewall
E. Cisco IOS firewall and IOS IPS
F. transparent firewall
Answer:ACE
5. What is used to avoid power drops and running power to access points?
A. Cisco Aironet 1140 series
B. End-point PSE
C. Midspan PSE
D. PoE-enabled switches
Answer:D
6. Which two WAN interfaces does the Cisco SRP 520 Series support? (Choose two)
A. Fibre Channel
B. ADSL2+
C. serial
D. Fast Ethernet
E. passive optical network(PON)
Answer:BD
7. A customer is considering purchasing either a Cisco Catalyst 2960 or Cisco Catalyst Express
500.Which feature can be only found on the Catalyst 2960?
A. 48 Ethernet 10/100 ports
B. Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet connectivity
C. dual-purpose copper or fiber uplinks
D. standalone fixed-configuration Layer 2 switching
Answer:A
8. How does the Cisco Small Business Pro Service differ from the Cisco Small Business Pro Warranty?
A. Access to Cisco Small Business Support Community
B. device-level warranty
C. Cisco Small Business Pro products only
D. speed of hardware replacement
Answer:A
9. Which combination of port is available on the Cisco SPA 8800 voice gateway?
A. one station port and one trunk port (1xFXS and 1xFXO)
B. two station ports (2xFXS)
C. four station ports and four trunk ports (4xFXS and 4xFXO)
D. eight station ports (8xFXS)
Answer:C
10. Which pre-sales SMART design documents are available to help you implement and install a solution?
(Choose three)
A. Quick Quoting tool
B. Small Business Product Guide
C. Smart Business Communications system
D. Solution Profile
E. Overview presentation
F. Cisco Configuration Assistant
Answer:BDE
Other exam : 642-384
Test4actual Cisco 642-165 exam
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The Product Description
Exam Name: Unified Communications Contact Center Express Implementation(UCCX)
Questions and Answers:89Q&A
Update Time:2010-8-30
Price:$169.00
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1. Which step can be used to trap runtime script errors and recover gracefully?
A. set
B. call subflow
C. on exception goto
D. get reporting statistic
Answer: C
2. which three tasks are supported by the cisco supervisor desktop?
A. push a web page to an agent’s cisco agent desktop
B. chat with an agent
C. log in an agent
D. change an agent’s state to ready
E. send an email to an agent
Answer: ABD
3. A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the custormer
B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer
C. the personal line of the agent to the customer
D. a CTI port the agent then redirected to the customer
Answer: D
4. Presence integration is a Cisco unified CCX teature available in which of these packages?
A. premium, enhanced,and standard
B. premium only
C. premium with high availability only
D. premium and enhanced\
Answer: A
5. which step would you use to get information about the numbet of contacts currently in queue?
A. get contact info
B. get session info
C. get call contact info
D. get reporting statistics
Answer: D
6. what is the maximux number of concurrent emails an agent can have ?
A. 1 email
B. 2 emails
C. 5 email s
D. 10 emails
Answer: C
7. how do you remove a phantom call (sometimes also referred to as ghost call) that is stuck in queue in the CSQ real-time report?
A. log out all agents
B. restart the browser-based real-time reporting client
C. select the phantom call from the list of waiting contacts and select clear contact from the tools menu
D. reset the real-time reports
Answer: C
8. if you have not configured the database subsystem,what is the status of the database subsystem on the control center page of appadmin?
A. partial service
B. out of service
C. shutdown
D. not configured
Answer: B
9. which three tasks can an agent perform using email?
A. save the response as draft
B. send the response to supervisor
C. transfer the amail to another CSQ
D. transfer the email to another agent
E. delete the email F. mark the email as junk
Answer: A C D
10. which type of information is available from the cisco unified contact center express control center?
A. database repliccation status
B. systerm parameters configuration
C. date and time of most recent failure
D. cisco unified communications manager cluster status
Answer: A
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Exam : Cisco 642-845
1. Which two Cisco AutoQoS interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. AutoQoS is supported on Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces.
B. AutoQoS is supported on low-speed ATM PVCs in point-to-point subinterfaces.
C. AutoQoS is supported on serial PPP and HDLC interfaces.
D. AutoQoS is supported only on Frame Relay main interfaces and not on any subinterface configuration.
Answer: BC
2. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Answer: BD
3. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).
B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.
C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.
D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.
E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.
Answer: BD
4. Which two statements are true about the function of CAC? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. CAC provides guaranteed voice quality on a link.
B. CAC artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls.
C. CAC is used to control the amount of bandwidth that is taken by a call on a link.
D. CAC prevents oversubscription of WAN resources that is caused by too much voice traffic.
E. CAC allows an unlimited number of voice calls while severely restricting, if necessary, other forms of traffic.
F. CAC solves voice congestion problems by using QoS to give priority to UDP traffic.
Answer: BD
5. Which two statements are true about the implementation of QoS? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Implementing DiffServ involves the configuration of RSVP.
B. Implementing IntServ allows QoS to be performed by configuring only the ingress and egress devices.
C. Implementing IntServ involves the utilization of RSVP.
D. Traffic should be classified and marked by the core network devices.
E. Traffic should be classified and marked as close to the edge of the network as possible.
Answer: CE
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6. What are the steps for configuring stateful NBAR for dynamic protocols?
Select the best response.
A. Use the command ip nbar protocol-discovery to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
B. Use the command match protocol rtp to allow identification of real-time audio and video traffic. Use the command ip nbar port-map to extend the NBAR functionality for well-known protocols to new port numbers.
C. Use the command match protocol to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
D. Configure a traffic class. Configure a traffic policy. Attach the traffic policy to an interface.
E. Configure video streaming. Configure audio streaming. Attach the codec to an interface.
Answer: D
7. Two sites are using a multisite centralized call processing model. The voice gateway on the remote branch has lost IP connectivity to its Cisco CallManager server. Which feature enables the remote gateway to take the role of the call agent during the WAN failure?
Select the best response.
A. automated alternate routing (AAR)
B. Cisco CallManager Attendant Console
C. real-time protocol (RTP)
D. Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST)
Answer: D
8. To have the best possible voice quality and to utilize effectively the available bandwidth, which queuing and compression mechanisms need to be used? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ)
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. priority queuing (PQ) or custom queuing (CQ)
D. Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
E. TCP header compression
F. UDP header compression
Answer: BD
9. Which three statements about end-to-end delay are true? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).
A. End-to-end delay is the sum of propagation delays, processing delays, serialization delays, and queuing delays.
B. Coast-to-coast end-to-end delay over an optical link is about 20 ms.
C. Processing delay depends on various factors, which include CPU speed, CPU utilization, IP switching mode, and router architecture.
D. Propagation and serialization delays are related to the media.
E. Propagation delay is the time it takes to transmit a packet and is measured in bits-per-second (bps).
F. Serialization delay is the time it takes for a router to take the packet from an input interface and put it into the output queue of
the output interface.
Answer: ACD
10. What three statements are true about the various deployments of the 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?(Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. EAP-FAST has the ability to tie login with non-Microsoft user databases.
B. EAP-TLS supports static passwords.
C. PEAP supports one-time passwords.
D. LEAP does not support multiple operating systems.
E. LEAP supports Layer 3 roaming.
F. PEAP does not work with WPA.
Answer: ACE
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Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks:642-845 exam
Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-845
Exam Name: Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks Questions and Answers:153Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-23
Price:$69.00
Exam Details
The CCNP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP certification. The CCNP (642-845) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.