1. An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A
2. Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D
3. Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A
4. RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D
5. Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com/ht0-201.html

6. When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A
7. According to Ohm’s Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C
8. Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B
9. The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B
10. Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 194 Q&A to your HT0-201 exam preparation. In the HT0-201 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CompTIA HTI+ helping to ready you for your successful CompTIA Certification.
Exam Details
The CompTIA HTI+ exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the CompTIA Certified Network Associate CompTIA HTI+ certification. The CompTIA HTI+ (HT0-201) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection CompTIA Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to CompTIA Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various CompTIA networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: HT0-201
Exam Name: CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam Questions and Answers:194Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-23
Price:$109.00
With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 194 Q&A to your HT0-201 exam preparation. In the HT0-201exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CompTIA HTI+ helping to ready you for your successful CompTIA Certification.

1. What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A.a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B.a geographic configuration reference
C.a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D.a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
ANSWER: C
2. Rather than distributing the Enterprise Vault (EV) client through the Group Policy Object, the network administrator wants to distribute the Self Installing client through EV custom forms.
What must be enabled on the client to accomplish this?
A.ActiveX controls
B.Background Intelligent Transfer Services
C.Remote Procedure Call
D.Automatic Updates
ANSWER: A
3. Which two functions are performed by the Enterprise Vault (EV) Configuration Wizard? (Select two.)
A.grants privileges to the Vault Service account
B.configures the Provisioning Service
C.creates the EV system mailbox
D.configures the index and shopping basket locations
E.configures the Vault Store Group fingerprint database
ANSWER: AD
4. For optimal performance, which two solutions are best for setting up Enterprise Vault indexes? (Select two.)
A.direct-attached disks
B.SDLT tape drives
C.WORM storage
D.SAN storage
E.NAS device
ANSWER: AD
5. What happens when an administrator rebuilds an index using the Enterprise Vault Administration Console?
A.A snapshot is taken of the index and then rebuilt.
B.The directory service is suspended and the index is rebuilt.
C.The index is added to the specified index location.
D.The entire index is deleted and rebuilt.
ANSWER: D
6. Which two functions does Vault Cache provide to users? (Select two.)
A.access to archived data with limited bandwidth
B.access to archived data without network connectivity
C.access to archived data from search.asp
D.access to archived data from Entourage
E.access to restore from vault
ANSWER: AB
7. Which three options are available for export when restoring a shopping basket in the Enterprise Vault browser search? (Select three.)
A..pst
B..csv
C..tif
D.a subfolder of the restored items folder
E.current folder path inside the mailbox
ANSWER: ADE
8. Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML.
What is a benefit of changing the default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A.increases the performance of file conversion
B.allows for the support of additional document types
C.allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D.significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
ANSWER: A

http://www.test4actual.com/st0-072.html

9. What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users? (Select three.)
A.extends the archived mail availability
B.provides remote access to multiple user archives
C.provides remote access to archived public folder items
D.unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E.runs independent of EV services
ANSWER: ABC
10. From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select three.)
A.Outlook profiles
B.Tape libraries
C.UNIX servers
D.Windows servers
E.Remote client workstations
ANSWER: ADE
11. Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select three.)
A.Outlook Delegates permissions
B.Exchange Public Folder permissions
C.Outlook Folder permissions
D.Domain Administrative permissions
E.Outlook Address Book permissions
ANSWER: ABC
12. An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying different archiving strategies.
Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A.The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy and moves the users into these groups.
B.The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C.The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D.The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default policy for everyone else.
ANSWER: B
13. In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A.Traditional Chinese
B.Danish
C.Portuguese
D.Finnish
E.Hebrew
ANSWER: ABE
14. Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A.Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B.Exchange Managed Folders
C.Exchange Management Shell
D.Exchange Dumpster
ANSWER: B
15. What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A.to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B.to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C.to centralize information management and retention
D.to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E.to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
ANSWER: BC

Quality and Value for the st0-072 exam
Test4actual Practice Exams for Symantec STS Partner Accreditation st0-072 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

100% Guarantee to Pass Your st0-072 exam
If you prepare for the exam using our Test4actual testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the st0-072 exam STS Partner Accreditation Designing for Symantec Internetwork Solutions) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: st0-072
Exam Name: Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 Exchange (STS) Questions and Answers:151Q&A
Update Time:2010-2-21
Price:$119.00
With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 151 Q&A to your st0-072 exam preparation. In the st0-072 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in STS Partner Accreditation helping to ready you for your successful Symantec Certification.

1. The data center teamrequires that they be alerted if any of the servers in a remote site go down.However, they do NOT want to receive alerts when the remote site connection goes down.
Which two configuration steps should you take within your network management system (NMS) to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.set up alerts on server status
B.set up alerts on the remote connection status
C.set each of the servers as dependencies for each other
D.set up the remote connection as a dependency for each of the servers
E.set up alerts on the remote router status
ANSWER: AD
2. What is an advantage of using SNMPv2c over using SNMPv1?
A.username parameter
B.get bulk command
C.get next command
D.32 bit counters
E.authentication and encryption
ANSWER: B
3. Whichtwo variables are used in the calculation of Percent Utilization? (Choose two.)
A.configured bandwidth
B.packets per second
C.buffer overruns
D.interface discards
E.bits per second
ANSWER: AE
4. Due to a server crash, you had to moveOrion to a new server with a new IP address.
Which two changes should you make to ensure thatOrion functions properly from the new server and IP address? (Choose two.)
A.update the access control lists (ACLs) thatrestrict management protocols
B.change the IP address specified in the snmpd.conf file on the Orion server
C.update the source address for NetFlow packets exported to Orion
D.notify ARIN of the Orion server’s new IP address
E.update the destination IP address for Syslog and SNMP traps on your managed devices
ANSWER: AE
5. You are monitoring your Internet connection, and your ISP has guaranteed512 Kbps. Historical data shows that your connection speedholds at 256 Kbps for long periods of time, but never exceeds this speed.
What does this indicate?
A.The ISP has misconfigured the link.
B.The WAN router is misconfigured.
C.The NAT table is overloaded.
D.QoS is dropping low priority traffic.
ANSWER: A

http://www.test4actual.com/scp-500.html

6. Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM serversmonitoring multiplelocationsfrom a single site. This is producing inaccurate dataandhigh WAN bandwidth utilization.
Whatare the twomost efficientways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A.deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B.deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C.deploy an additional Orion Poller
D.deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E.deploy an Orion Hot Standby
ANSWER: AB
7. How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are notincludedin the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A.by manually associatingthe device’sOID to Orion
B.by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C.by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D.bymanually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E.bymanually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
ANSWER: A
8. Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collectutilization statistics?
A.ICMP
B.SNMP
C.SMTP
D.WMI
ANSWER: B
9. A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensureit will use message integrity.
Which version of SNMP should they use?
A.SNMPv1
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv3
D.SNMPv4
ANSWER: C
10. A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growingsignificantly in sizedue to thelarge number of devices sending Syslog messages.
What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A.configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog
C.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D.configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
ANSWER: A

1. Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A.Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B.Data can be retrieved by XQuery.
C.XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D.Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole document.
Answer: C
2. A DRDA host database resides on a z/OS or an i5/OS system and listens on port 446. The TCP/IP address for this system is 192.168.10.1 and the TCP/IP host name is myhost. Which of the following commands is required to update the local node directory so that a DB2 client can access this DRDA database?
A.CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 446
B.CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 446
C.CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 192.168.10.1
D.CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 192.168.10.1
Answer: B
3. The following SQL statements were executed in sequence:
What is the current content of the staffsalary table?
A.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000 20 | 50000.00 —————–
B.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 50000.00 20 | 50000.00 —————–
C.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000.00 20 | 60000.00 —————–
D.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000.00 20 | 50000.00 —————–
Answer: C
4. Which of the following queries will correctly return the manager information sorted by the manager’s last name,department and project name?
A.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate
FROM (SELECT name, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate
FROM employee, project
WHERE empno = empno) AS empproj
ORDER BY name, dept, projname
B.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate
FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate
FROM employee, project
WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj
SORT BY lastname, firstname, dept, projname
C.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate
FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate
FROM employee, project
WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj
ORDER BY lastname ASC
SORT BY dept, projname DESC
D.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate
FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate
FROM employee, project
WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj
ORDER BY lastname, dept, projname
Answer: D
5. Which of the following strings can be inserted into an XML column using XMLPARSE?
A.””
B.””
C.””
D.””
Answer: A
6. When defining a referential constraint between the parent table T2 and the dependent table T1,which of the following is true?
A.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause can be a subset of the list of column
names in the primary key of T2 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T2.
B.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause can be a subset of the list of column
names in the primary key of T1 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T1.
C.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause must be identical to the list of column
names in the primary key of T2 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T2.
D.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause must be identical to the list of column
names in the primary key of T1 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T1.
Answer: C
7. Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Linux server that has 6 CPUs?
A.DB2 Express Edition
B.DB2 Personal Edition
C.DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D.DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D
8. Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an AIX server?
A.DB2 Express Edition
B.DB2 Personal Edition
C.DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D.DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com/000-730.html

9. Which of the following DB2 products are required on an iSeries or System i server to enable an application running on that server to retrieve data from a DB2 database on a Linux server?
A.DB2 for i5/OS
B.DB2 Runtime Client
C.DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
D.DB2 for i5/OS SQL Development Kit
Answer: A
10. Which product must be installed on z/OS to allow a COBOL program running on that machine to access data on a remote DB2 for z/OS server?
A.DB2 for z/OS
B.DB2 Run-Time Client for z/OS
C.DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition for z/OS
D.z/OS Application Connectivity to DB2 for z/OS and OS/390
Answer: A
11. Which of the following tools can make recommendations for indexes and/or MQTs to improve the performance of DB2 applications?
A.Design Advisor
B.Visual Explain
C.Performance Advisor
D.Configuration Assistant
Answer: A
12. Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to execute an SQL statement and view a graphical representation of the access plan?
A.Task Center
B.Command Editor
C.Developer Workbench
D.Command Line Processor
Answer: B
13. Which tool must be used to analyze all of the database operations performed by an application against a DB2 for i5/OS database?
A.Visual Explain
B.Activity Monitor
C.SQL Performance Monitor
D.DB2 Performance Monitor
Answer: C
14. Which of the following tools for DB2 V9 allows a user to create and debug a SQL stored procedure?
A.Control Center
B.Development Center
C.Developer Workbench
D.Stored Procedure Builder
Answer: C
15. Which of the following tools can be used to schedule a backup operation that is to be run every Sunday evening?
A.Journal
B.Task Center
C.Activity Monitor
D.Command Line Processor
Answer: B

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 128 Q&A to your 000-730 exam preparation. In the 000-730 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in DB2 helping to ready you for your successful IBM Certification.
Exam Details
The DB2 exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate DB2 certification. The DB2 (000-730) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 000-730
Exam Name: DB2 9 Fundamentals Questions and Answers:128Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-11
Price:$119.00
Exam Details
The DB2 exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate DB2 certification. The DB2 (000-730) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 323 Q&A to your 640-802 exam preparation. In the 640-802 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCNA helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Exam Details
The CCNA exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA certification. The CCNA (640-802) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Quality and Value for the 640-802 exam
Test4actual Practice Exams for Cisco CCNA 640-802 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

100% Guarantee to Pass Your 640-802 exam
If you prepare for the exam using our Test4actual testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the 640-802 exam CCNA Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 640-802
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers:323Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-16
Price:$89.00
Exam Details
The CCNA exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA certification. The CCNA (640-802) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Exam : IBM 000-374
Title : IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 SystemAdministration
Version : DEMO

1. A legacy application uses MQPUT to send messages to a queue INV.
Which set of MQSC commands below will successfully configure the queue manager so that a number of JMS applications can receive these messages by subscribing to topic Inventory/CurrentItems?
A. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE QALIAS(INV) TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
B. DEFINE TOPIC(INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems)DEFINE TALIAS(INV) TARGET(INV_TOPIC) TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
C. DEFINE TOPIC (INV_TOPIC) + TOPICSTR(Inventory/CurrentItems) QALIAS(INV)
D. DEFINE QALIAS(INV) TARGET(Inventory/CurrentItems) + TARGTYPE(TOPIC)
Answer: A
2. An administrator wants to prevent the channel initiator process from starting when a queue manager QMA on AIX is started.
Which action(s) will accomplish this?
A. Restart the queue manager using strmqm ns QMA.
B. Restart the queue manager using strmqm chinit no QMA.
C. Issue the command ALTER QMGR SCHINIT(DISABLED), then restart the queue manager using strmqm QMA.
D. Edit the file qm.ini for QMA and add an entry ChannelInitiator = No in the CHANNELS stanza, then restart the
queue manager using strmqm QMA
Answer: A
3. An administrator has been asked to create a queue manager alias for QM1 to be used for communication between remote queue managers.
What MQSC command will create the queue manager alias?
A. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(’Q1′) RQMNAME(’ ‘) XMITQ(QM1)
B. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(’ ‘) RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(QM1)
C. DEF QR(QM1.ALIAS) RNAME(’Q1′) RQMNAME(QM1) XMITQ(’ ‘)
D. DEF QL(QM1.ALIAS) RQMNAME(QM1)
Answer: B
4. An administrator has created the following MQ objects on two systems:
SYSTEM A
crtmqm -C “VEGGIE QUEUE MANAGER” -LL -Q -D POTATO VEGGIE
DEFINE QR(APPLE) RQMNAME(FRUIT) RNAME(PEACH)
DEFINE QL(DLQ)
DEFINE QL(POTATO) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEF CHL(’VEGGIE. FRUIT’) CHLTYPE(SDR) TRPTYPE(TCP) CONNAME(’9.84.100.7(1414)’) +
XMITQ(’POTATO’)
SYSTEM B
crtmqm -C “FRUIT QUEUE MANAGER” -LL -Q -D GRAPE FRUIT
DEFINE QL(GRAPE) USAGE(XMITQ)
DEFINE QL(PEACH)
DEF CHL(’VEGGIE. FRUIT’) CHLTYPE(RCVR) TRPTYPE(TCP)
An application connects to queue manager VEGGIE and puts a message to queue APPLE. On which queue does the message get delivered before it gets picked up by the sender channel?
A. POTATO
B. APPLE
C. GRAPE
D. PEACH
Answer: A
5. An application deployed on z/OS was causing frequent abends.
Which of the following options from the IPCS Dump Component Panel can an administrator use to analyze the problem?
A. CSQWDMP
B. ASMCHECK
C. DIVDATA
D. DAEDATA
Answer: A
6. What are the four predefined message types?
A. Request, response, publication, datagram
B. Publication, subscription, request, response
C. Request, reply, report, datagram
D. Request, broadcast, acknowledgment, response
Answer: C
7. Which features of IBM WebSphere MQ specifically provide robust message transport?
A. Data integrity, security, parallel processing
B. Asynchronous delivery, once and once-only delivery, persistent messaging
C. Time independence, no duplicate delivery, synchronous processing
D. Assured delivery, application parallelism, time dependent applications
Answer: B
8. Which of the following are performance enhancements to the Java Message Service provider implementation in IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Read Ahead
B. Support for channel exits written in C/C++
C. Asynchronous Put
D. Message selection performed by Queue Manager
E. Ability to access all MQMD fields for IBM WebSphere MQ messages.
Answer: ACD

http://www.test4actual.com/000-374.html

9. Which of the following statements are true, regarding applications that communicate via IBM WebSphere MQ?IBM WebSphere MQ applications have to agree upon:
A. the platforms they are running on
B. the name(s) of the queue(s) used
C. the maximum number of messages sent within a given time period
D. the layout of the message data exchanged
E. the network protocol used
Answer: BD
10. A company running IBM WebSphere MQ V5.3 on UNIX upgraded to IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0.Immediately after the migration, what is the administrator expected to do?
Start the:
A. MQSeries service
B. queue manager and listener simultaneously
C. queue manager before starting the listener
D. listener before starting the queue manager
Answer: C
11. An administrator using WebSphere MQ Explorer is unable to connect to queue manager PROD after it has been migrated, and receives error message SYSTEM.MQEXPLORER.REPLY.MODEL not defined.
Which command will refresh the existing system objects to resolve this issue?
A. strmqm c PROD
B. strmqm a PROD
C. strmqm ss PROD
D. strmqm si PROD
Answer: A
12. What are the advantages of using queue-sharing groups in IBM WebSphere MQ?
A. workload balancing, remote administration
B. improved performance, ease of monitoring
C. scalability, end-to-end security, data integrity
D. scalability, high availability, workload balancing
Answer: D
13. Which two user profiles are mandatory to correctly run IBM WebSphere MQ on i5/OS?
A. QMQM, QMQMADM
B. QMQMADIM, mqm
C. mqm, QMQM
D. mqm, MUSR_MQADMIN
Answer: A
14. Which Eclipse version is a prerequisite to use MQ Explorer to administer IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 on Windows?
A. 3.3
B. 3.2
C. 3.1
D. 3.0
Answer: A
15. For the Solaris platform, which databases are supported as a resource manager in transactions coordinated by IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0?
A. Oracle, Derby, My SQL
B. DB2, Derby, Teradata
C. DB2, Oracle, Informix, Sybase
D. DB2, SQL Server, Sybase, Informix
Answer: C

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 000-374
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 System Administration Questions and Answers:112Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-11
Price:$119.00
Exam Details
The WebSphere exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate WebSphere certification. The WebSphere (000-374) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.