Cisco 642-067 exam is one of the hottest IT certification exams,here are some latest cisco 642-067 exam practice which are updated by Test4actual,it will help you pass your exams,if you want.
1. Why is it appropriate to use conditional label advertising when deploying MPLS?
Select the best response.
A. to make CEF tables smaller
B. to enable label switching on the frame mode interface
C. to restrict MPLS availability to predefined time periods
D. to restrict label switching to a limited number of networks
E. to restrict end users from seeing the routers in the MPLS network
Answer: D

2. Which three of the following steps are mandatory when configuring MPLS on Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. start LDP
B. enable CEF switching
C. configure the MPLS ID
D. disable IP TTL propagation
E. configure conditional label advertising
F. enable label switching on frame mode interfaces
Answer: ABF

3. How are RIP routing contexts implemented in MPLS VPN?
Select the best response.
A. RIP does not support routing contexts
B. routing contexts are implemented in a single routing process
C. routing contexts are implemented using multiple routing processes
D. routing contexts are implemented as several instances of a single routing process
E. routing contexts are implemented as a single instance of several routing processes
Answer: D

4. Which two of the following statements are true about HSRP load sharing? (Choose two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. It is achieved by using more than one HSRP group.
B. It is done in regards to either round robin or weight basis.
C. It is used to offload the active router in a certain HSRP group.
D. Single group HSRP is used to achieve more efficient link utilization.
E. The return traffic is influenced by HSRP load sharing configuration.
Answer: AC

5. Which of the following statements about authentication responses and conditions is true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. When a router receives a failure response, it stops querying authentication methods.
B. When a router receives an error response, it stops querying authentication methods.
C. If the router receives a failure response from an authentication method, it queries the next method.
D. The router does not differentiate between failure and error responses; the authentication process is always interrupted.
E. If it receives no response from the authentication method, a router will determine the error condition on its own; the router also has the option to proceed to the next method in a list if configured accordingly.
Answer: AE

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6. When you issue the logging trap informational command, what happens?
Select the best response.
A. An information trap is sent to the SNMP server.
B. Informational and debug messages are logged to the syslog server.
C. All messages are sent to the logging host, where selections are made.
D. All messages from emergencies to informational are sent to the logging host.
Answer: D

7. Refer to the exhibit. This shows the NetFlow statistics for a router. You are analyzing the traffic pattern and you are interested in the percentage of packets between 32 and 64 bytes in size and the number of flows in progress. Which of these identifies both numbers correctly?
Select the best response.
A. 69.4%, 4061
B. 24.9%, 980
C. 69.4%, 35
D. 6.94%, 980
E. cannot be determined from this output
Answer: C

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is true?
Select the best response.
A. BGP NSF awareness is enabled
B. SSO for BGP NSF capability is enabled
C. BGP graceful restart awareness is enabled
D. 10.11.1.187 is configured as an NSF-capable BGP neighbor
Answer: A

9. What will happen if you issue the redundancy force-switchover command on a Catalyst 6500 Series Switch with redundant supervisor modules?
Select the best response.
A. reset of the primary supervisor
B. manual switchover from standby to active supervisor
C. manual switchover from active to standby supervisor
D. automatic switchover from active to standby on primary supervisor failure
Answer: C

10. You are considering deploying the Cisco SSL VPN AIM module in a Cisco 1800 Series Router. Which benefit should you expect?
Select the best response.
A. to improve performance exclusively for SSL VPN applications
B. to improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications
C. to improve performance for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with IPsec encryption taking place in hardware
D. to improve performance up to 200% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with encryption taking place in hardware
E. to improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with SSL encryption taking place in hardware
Answer: D

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11. During which phase is a proposal developed and delivered?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Operate
Answer: A

12. Which of these correctly identifies the six phases of the Cisco Lifecycle Services framework?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare, Plan, Create, Implement, Operate, and Improve
B. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and Optimize
C. Prepare, Plan, Design, Apply, Operate, and Manage
D. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate and Manage
Answer: B

13. In which phase is a systems acceptance test plan developed and documented?
Select the best response.
A. Implement
B. Design
C. Prepare
D. Operate
Answer: B

14. In which service component of the optimize phase would you assess the routing and switching system and recommend activities such as optimizing device configurations, capacity planning, or traffic analysis?
Select the best response.
A. Change Management
B. Security Assessment
C. Operations Assessment
D. Security Administration
E. Operations Readiness Assessment
F. Technology Assessment
Answer: F

15. Which tool enables easy configuration and monitoring of Cisco ISRs?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco MWAM
B. Cisco SDM
C. Cisco NAC Appliance
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Answer: B

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Here are some CCNA practices ,hope to help you!
1. To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what two requirements must be met? (Choose two.)
A. Each end of the trunk line must be set to IEEE 802.1E encapsulation.
B. The VTP management domain name of both switches must be set the same.
C. All ports on both the switches must be set as access ports.
D. One of the two switches must be configured as a VTP server.
E. A rollover cable is required to connect the two switches together.
F. A router must be used to forward VTP traffic between VLANs.
Answer: BD

2. What are three IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three.)
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. VPN tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. ISATAP tunneling
E. PPP tunneling
F. Teredo tunneling
Answer: ADF

3. Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: AD

4. What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two.)
A. packet switching
B. access layer security
C. path selection
D. VLAN membership assignment
E. bridging between LAN segments
F. microsegmentation of broadcast domains
Answer: AC

5. Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the following addresses can be assigned to network hosts? (Choose three.)
A. 15.234.118.63
B. 92.11.178.93
C. 134.178.18.56
D. 192.168.16.87
E. 201.45.116.159
F. 217.63.12.192
Answer: BCD

6. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: ADE

7. A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Answer: ABD

8. What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)
A. ATM
B. IDS
C. IOS
D. IOX
E. IPS
F. SDM
Answer: BE

9. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Answer: CEF

10. A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
F. 255.255.248.0
Answer: BE

11. OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Choose three.)
A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured.
B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535.
C. Area 0 is called the backbone area.
D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.
E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.
F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.
Answer: BCE

More free plactices please cilck here :http://www.test4actual.com/ccna-certification.html OR you can leave an e-mail to me ,the e-mail adress is test4actual@126.com.

Title:Windows Server 2008 Applications Infrastructure, Configuring

1. 您在執行 Windows Server 2008 的伺服器上安裝 Windows 部署服務 (WDS) 角色。
當您嘗試將跨距映像檔上傳到 WDS 伺服器時，收到錯誤訊息。
您需要確保映像檔可以上傳。
您應該怎麼做？
A. 將 \REMINST 目錄上的 [完全控制] 授與 Authenticated Users 群組。
B. 從 WDS 伺服器上的命令提示字元執行 wdsutil /Convert 命令。
C. 從 WDS 伺服器上的命令提示字元執行 wdsutil /Export 命令，將 *.swm 檔案匯出成目的 *.wim 檔。
D. 從 WDS 伺服器上的命令提示字元，個別針對每個元件檔執行 wdsutil /add-image
/imagefile:\\server\share\sources\install.wim /image type:install 命令。
Answer: C

2. 您的公司有四個地區性辦公室。在網路上，您安裝了 Windows 部署服務 (WDS) 角色。您的公司為每個辦公室建立了三個映像，所以公司總共有 12 個映像。公司會使用這些映像做為工作站的標準映像。您使用 WDS 部署這些映像。現在您需要確保每個系統管理員都僅能檢視他們的地區性辦公室的映像。請問您該怎麼做？
A. 為每個地區性辦公室建立一個全域群組，並將電腦置於適當的全域群組中。
B. 為每個地區性辦公室建立一個組織單位 (Organizational Unit，OU)，並將電腦置於適當的 OU 中。
C. 將所有映像置於 WDS 伺服器上的單一映像群組中，然後授與每個系統管理員對這個映像群組的使用權限。
D. 將每個地區性辦公室置於 WDS 伺服器上的個別映像群組中，然後授與每位系統管理員權限，讓他們可以使用地區性辦公室所屬的映像群組。
Answer: D

3. 您在一部執行 Windows Server 2008 的伺服器上安裝了 Windows 部署服務 (WDS) 角色。此外，您計劃在一部不支援開機前執行環境 (Preboot Execution Environment，PXE) 的電腦上安裝 Windows Vista。Windows Vista 的映像儲存在 WDS 伺服器上。您需要啟動這部電腦，並安裝儲存在 WDS 伺服器上的映像。請問您該建立什麼？
A. 一個擷取映像
B. 一個包含 PXE 驅動程式的 CD-ROM
C. 一個探索映像
D. 一個安裝映像
Answer: C

4. 您的公司有一個 Active Directory 網域。同時，您有一部稱為 KMS1 的伺服器，執行的是 Windows Server 2008。在 KMS1 上，您安裝並設定了金鑰管理服務 (Key Management Service，KMS)。此外，您計劃在十部新的伺服器上部署 Windows Server 2008。因此您先安裝了兩部伺服器。但這兩部伺服器無法使用 KMS1 啟動。您需要使用 KMS 伺服器啟動新的伺服器。請問您該怎麼做？
A. 完成其餘八部伺服器的安裝工作。
B. 在新的伺服器上，在 Windows 防火牆中設定 Windows ManagementInstrumentation (WMI) 例外狀況。
C. 在 KMS 伺服器上安裝大量啟用管理工具 (Volume Activation Management Tool，VAMT)，並設定多重啟用金鑰 (Multiple Activation Key，MAK) Proxy 啟動。
D. 在 KMS 伺服器上安裝大量啟用管理工具 (Volume Activation Management Tool，VAMT)，並設定多重啟用金鑰 (Multiple Activation Key，MAK) 獨立啟動。
Answer: A

5. 您的公司有稱為 contoso.com 的單一 Active Directory 網域。網域中的所有伺服器都執行 Windows Server 2008。有兩部網域控制站安裝了 DNS 伺服器伺服器角色，這兩部網域控制站分別稱為 DC1 與 DC2。兩部 DNS 伺服器都裝載了整合 Active Directory 的區域，並設定僅允許安裝最安全的更新。DC1 安裝了金鑰管理服務 (Key Management Service，KMS)，並已啟動服務。您發現裝載於 DC1 和 DC2 的 contoso.com 區域的服務定位器記錄遺失了。現在您需要在 contoso.com 區域中強制執行 KMS 服務定位器記錄登錄。請問您該怎麼做？
A. 設定讓 contoso.com 區域接受非安全更新。
B. 在 DC1 上，在命令提示字元中執行 slmgr.vbs –rearm 指令碼。
C. 在 DC1 上，在命令提示字元中執行 net stop slsvc 命令，然後執行 net start slsvc 命令。
D. 在 DC2 上，在命令提示字元中執行 net stop netlogon 命令，然後執行 net start netlogon 命令。
Answer: C

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6. 您的公司有個名為 contoso.com 的單一 Active Directory 網域。這個網域有兩台網域控制站和 60 台成員伺服器。所有伺服器都執行 Windows Server 2008。其中一台網域控制站安裝並啟動了金鑰管理服務 (KMS)。所有伺服器都使用 KMS 自動搜索來尋找 KMS 伺服器。您需要將 KMS 使用的連接埠從預設連接埠變更為連接埠 12200。
您應該執行哪兩個動作？(每個正確的答案僅提供部分解決方案。請選擇兩個答案。)
A. 重新啟動 KMS 伺服器上的 slsvc 服務。
B. 重新啟動 KMS 伺服器上的 DNS 伺服器服務。
C. 從 KMS 伺服器上的命令提示字元，執行 slmgr.vbs –skms KMSServer:12200 命令。
D. 從用戶端電腦上的命令提示字元，執行 slmgr.vbs –skms KMSServer:12200 命令。
Answer: AC

7. 您的網路包含單一 Active Directory 網域。網域中有一部執行 Windows Server 2008 的伺服器，其上安裝了 Windows SharePoint Services (WSS)。您需要允許使用者由 SharePoint 站台建立通訊群組清單。請問您應該在 WSS 伺服器上做什麼？
A. 將輸出郵件字元集設為 1200(Unicode)。
B. 啟用 SharePoint 目錄管理服務。
C. 設定站台僅接受來自已驗證使用者的訊息。
D. 設定站台使用 Active Directory 網域服務中的預設 Rights Management Server。
Answer: B

8. 您有一部執行 Windows Server 2008 的伺服器，其上安裝了 Windows SharePoint Services (WSS)。這部伺服器設定接受輸入的電子郵件。您建立了新的文件庫。現在您需要確保任何使用者都能寄送電子郵件至文件庫。請問您該怎麼做？
A. 修改文件庫的 RSS 設定。
B. 修改文件庫的使用權限。
C. 修改文件庫的輸入電子郵件設定。
D. 啟用 Web 應用程式的匿名驗證。
Answer: C

9. 您的公司有一台名為 Server1 的伺服器，其上執行 Windows Server 2008 與 Hyper-V。Server1 主控三個虛擬機器。公司原則規定虛擬機器不得連線至公司網路。您需要設定所有虛擬機器讓它們彼此相連。您必須符合公司原則。
您應該執行哪兩個動作？(每個答案僅提供部分解決方案。請選擇兩個答案。)
A. 為每個虛擬機器選取 [未連線] 選項。
B. 為每個虛擬機器啟用 [啟用虛擬區域網路識別] 選項。
C. 將網路介面卡的 [連線] 設定為 [主機]。
D. 將網路介面卡的 [連線] 設定為 [無]。
Answer: BC

10. 您有一台執行 Windows Server 2008 的伺服器。該伺服器已安裝 Hyper-V 伺服器角色。您建立新的虛擬機器，並在該虛擬機器上執行 Windows Server 2003 的安裝。您將虛擬機器設定為使用主機伺服器的實體網路介面卡。您發現無法從虛擬機器存取網路資源。
您需要確保虛擬主機可以連線到實體網路。您應該怎麼做？
A. 在主機伺服器上安裝 Microsoft Loopback 介面卡。
B. 在主機伺服器上啟用 Multipath I/O 功能。
C. 在虛擬機器上安裝 Microsoft Loopback 介面卡。
D. 在虛擬機器上安裝 Microsoft Hyper-V 整合元件。
Answer: D

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11. 您有一台執行 Windows Server 2008 的伺服器。該伺服器已安裝 Hyper-V 伺服器角色，並有一個虛擬機器。該虛擬機器執行 Windows Server 2008。您計劃在虛擬機器上安裝新的應用程式。您需要確保當應用程式安裝失敗時，可以將虛擬機器還原成原始狀態。
您應該怎麼做？
A. 登入虛擬主機，並啟用遠端差異壓縮功能。
B. 登入虛擬主機，並啟用 Windows Server Backup 功能。
C. 從 Hyper-V 管理員主控台建立快照集。
D. 從 Hyper-V 管理員主控台，儲存虛擬機器的狀態。
Answer: C

12. 您有一部執行 Windows Server 2008 的伺服器，其上安裝了 Hyper-V 伺服器角色。您需要合併差異磁碟與父磁碟。請問您該怎麼做？
A. 編輯父磁碟。
B. 檢查父磁碟。
C. 編輯差異磁碟。
D. 檢查差異磁碟。
Answer: C

13. 您有一部執行 Windows Server 2008 的伺服器，其上安裝了 Hyper-V 伺服器角色。您建立了一部新的虛擬機器。現在您需要設定讓虛擬機器符合下列需求：•允許在虛擬機器與主機系統間進行網路通訊。避免與其他網路伺服器進行通訊。請問您首先該做什麼？
A. 安裝 Microsoft Loopback Adapter。
B. 建立新的虛擬網路。
C. 啟用網際網路連線共用 (Internet Connection Sharing，ICS)。
D. 將網路介面卡設定為 [不做任何連線]。
Answer: B

14. 您有兩台執行 Windows Server 2008 Enterprise 的伺服器。這兩台伺服器都安裝了容錯移轉叢集功能。您可以將這些伺服器設定為一個雙節點叢集。這些叢集節點分別命名為 NODE1 及 NODE2。您有一個名為 PrintService 的應用程式，其包含列印多工緩衝處理器資源。您需要將叢集設定為在容錯移轉之後讓 PrintService 應用程式自動回到 NODE1。
您應該執行哪兩個動作？(每個正確的答案僅提供部分解決方案。請選擇兩個答案。)
A. 在列印多工緩衝處理器資源的屬性中，將 [期間 (小時)] 選項設定為 [0]。
B. 將 NODE1 移到 PrintService 應用程式之慣用擁有者清單的頂端。
C. 針對 PrintService 應用程式啟用 [允許容錯回復] 和 [立即] 選項。
D. 在列印多工緩衝處理器資源的屬性中，停用 [如果重新啟動失敗，容錯移轉此伺服器或應用程式中的所有資源] 選項。
Answer: BC

15. 您的公司稱為 Contoso, Ltd.，擁有具備兩個節點的網路負載平衡叢集。此叢集作用僅在提供內部網站的高可用性與負載平衡。叢集的名稱為 web.contoso.com。您發現 Contoso 的使用者可以在 [網路上的芳鄰] 中檢視網路負載平衡叢集，而且可以使用 web.contoso.com 這個名稱連結至各種服務。web.contoso.com 網路負載平衡叢集設定為只使用一個連接埠規則。您需要設定讓 web.contoso.com 網路負載平衡叢集僅接受 HTTP 流量。請問您應該執行哪兩個動作？(每個正確答案都代表解決方案的一部分。請選擇兩個答案)
A. 登入至叢集節點的其中之一，並執行 wlbs disable all 命令。
B. 開啟 [網路負載平衡叢集] 主控台，然後刪除預設的連接埠規則。
C. 開啟 [網路負載平衡叢集] 主控台，然後為 TCP 連接埠 80 建立新的 [允許] 規則。
D. 開啟 [網路負載平衡叢集] 主控台，然後將預設的連接埠規則變更為停用的連接埠範圍規則。
Answer: BC

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Exam Number:642-067
Associated Certifications: Advanced Routing and Switching – Field Engineer
Duration: 60 minutes (55 -65 questions)
Available Languages: English and Japanese
Update Time:2009-11-21

Exam Description
The 642-067 ARSFE�Advanced Routing and Switching for Field Engineers exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Routing and Switching�Field Specialist certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of configuring and implementing the advanced capabilities of Cisco routing and switching solutions, verifying and troubleshooting the advanced capabilities of Cisco routing and switching solutions. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the ARSFE Advanced Routing and Switching for Field Engineers course.

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-067
Exam Name: Advanced Routing and Switching for Field Engineers
Questions and Answers:60Q&A
Update Time:2009-11-21
Price:$199.00

“Access Routing and LAN Switching “, also known as 642-067 exam, is a Cisco certification.
Preparing for the 642-067 exam? Searching 642-067 Test Questions, 642-067 Practice Exam, 642-067 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 60 Q&A to your 642-067 exam preparation. In the 642-067 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Access Routing and LAN Switching helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

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Cisco 642-067 exam is one of the hottest IT certification exams,here are some latest cisco 642-067 exam practice which are updated by Test4actual,it will help you pass your exams,if you want.
1. Why is it appropriate to use conditional label advertising when deploying MPLS?
Select the best response.
A. to make CEF tables smaller
B. to enable label switching on the frame mode interface
C. to restrict MPLS availability to predefined time periods
D. to restrict label switching to a limited number of networks
E. to restrict end users from seeing the routers in the MPLS network
Answer: D

2. Which three of the following steps are mandatory when configuring MPLS on Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. start LDP
B. enable CEF switching
C. configure the MPLS ID
D. disable IP TTL propagation
E. configure conditional label advertising
F. enable label switching on frame mode interfaces
Answer: ABF

3. How are RIP routing contexts implemented in MPLS VPN?
Select the best response.
A. RIP does not support routing contexts
B. routing contexts are implemented in a single routing process
C. routing contexts are implemented using multiple routing processes
D. routing contexts are implemented as several instances of a single routing process
E. routing contexts are implemented as a single instance of several routing processes
Answer: D

4. Which two of the following statements are true about HSRP load sharing? (Choose two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. It is achieved by using more than one HSRP group.
B. It is done in regards to either round robin or weight basis.
C. It is used to offload the active router in a certain HSRP group.
D. Single group HSRP is used to achieve more efficient link utilization.
E. The return traffic is influenced by HSRP load sharing configuration.
Answer: AC

5. Which of the following statements about authentication responses and conditions is true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. When a router receives a failure response, it stops querying authentication methods.
B. When a router receives an error response, it stops querying authentication methods.
C. If the router receives a failure response from an authentication method, it queries the next method.
D. The router does not differentiate between failure and error responses; the authentication process is always interrupted.
E. If it receives no response from the authentication method, a router will determine the error condition on its own; the router also has the option to proceed to the next method in a list if configured accordingly.
Answer: AE

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6. When you issue the logging trap informational command, what happens?
Select the best response.
A. An information trap is sent to the SNMP server.
B. Informational and debug messages are logged to the syslog server.
C. All messages are sent to the logging host, where selections are made.
D. All messages from emergencies to informational are sent to the logging host.
Answer: D

7. Refer to the exhibit. This shows the NetFlow statistics for a router. You are analyzing the traffic pattern and you are interested in the percentage of packets between 32 and 64 bytes in size and the number of flows in progress. Which of these identifies both numbers correctly?
151011172.gif
Select the best response.
A. 69.4%, 4061
B. 24.9%, 980
C. 69.4%, 35
D. 6.94%, 980
E. cannot be determined from this output
Answer: C

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is true?
Select the best response.
A. BGP NSF awareness is enabled
B. SSO for BGP NSF capability is enabled
C. BGP graceful restart awareness is enabled
D. 10.11.1.187 is configured as an NSF-capable BGP neighbor
Answer: A

9. What will happen if you issue the redundancy force-switchover command on a Catalyst 6500 Series Switch with redundant supervisor modules?
Select the best response.
A. reset of the primary supervisor
B. manual switchover from standby to active supervisor
C. manual switchover from active to standby supervisor
D. automatic switchover from active to standby on primary supervisor failure
Answer: C

10. You are considering deploying the Cisco SSL VPN AIM module in a Cisco 1800 Series Router. Which benefit should you expect?
Select the best response.
A. to improve performance exclusively for SSL VPN applications
B. to improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications
C. to improve performance for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with IPsec encryption taking place in hardware
D. to improve performance up to 200% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with encryption taking place in hardware
E. to improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with SSL encryption taking place in hardware
Answer: D

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11. During which phase is a proposal developed and delivered?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Operate
Answer: A

12. Which of these correctly identifies the six phases of the Cisco Lifecycle Services framework?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare, Plan, Create, Implement, Operate, and Improve
B. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and Optimize
C. Prepare, Plan, Design, Apply, Operate, and Manage
D. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate and Manage
Answer: B

13. In which phase is a systems acceptance test plan developed and documented?
Select the best response.
A. Implement
B. Design
C. Prepare
D. Operate
Answer: B

14. In which service component of the optimize phase would you assess the routing and switching system and recommend activities such as optimizing device configurations, capacity planning, or traffic analysis?
Select the best response.
A. Change Management
B. Security Assessment
C. Operations Assessment
D. Security Administration
E. Operations Readiness Assessment
F. Technology Assessment
Answer: F

15. Which tool enables easy configuration and monitoring of Cisco ISRs?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco MWAM
B. Cisco SDM
C. Cisco NAC Appliance
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Answer: B

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1.Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B
2.Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D
3.Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E
4.What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D
5.Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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6.Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D
7.After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C
8.Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B
9.What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E
10.Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

1.What is the minimum number of power supplies required in a BladeSystem c-Class when using three-phase power?
A.2
B.3
C.6
D.8
ANSWER: C
2.You have a c7000 BladeSystem enclosure that uses single phase power with six power supply modules.
What happens to the Insight Display of this enclosure when one of the power cables is disconnected from the enclosure?
A.The Insight Display unit sends out SNMP alerts to the SNMP trap destination.
B.The Insight Display unit produces an alert beep sound and flashes the display LCD.
C.The Insight Display unit displays an alert indicating the power supply unit that lost power.
D.The Insight Display unit initiates a self-reconfiguration of the power setting to N+N redundancy.
ANSWER: C
3.Which processors use a 64-bit x86-based architecture? (Select two.)
A.Intel Itanium
B.AMD Opteron
C.Intel Pentium IV
D.Intel Pentium M
E.Intel Xeon Quad Core
ANSWER: BE
4.Which HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades support HP-UX? (Select two.)
A.BL465c
B.BL680c
C.BL685c
D.BL860c
E.BL870c
F.BL2×220c
ANSWER: DE
5.What is the function of ECC memory?
A.It only detects single-bit errors.
B.It detects and corrects single-bit errors.
C.It detects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
D.It detects and corrects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
ANSWER: B

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6.Which storage technology is used with Serial Attached SCSI?
A.NUMA
B.shared bus
C.one-to-many
D.point-to-point
ANSWER: D
7.Which options exist when you enable HP NIC teaming? (Select two.)
A.fault tolerance
B.CISCO Layer 4 teaming
C.socket layered balancing
D.NIC assisted load balancing
E.switch assisted load balancing
ANSWER: AE
8.Which HP server blade uses the Itanium processor?
A.SB40c
B.BL485c
C.BL685c
D.BL860c
E.BL2×220c
ANSWER: D
9.How is BladeSystem Integrated Manager installed by default?
A.as part of a SmartStart installation
B.with the initial installation of HP SIM
C.as an add-on after HP SIM is installed
D.with a separate license key in HP SIM
ANSWER: B
10.Which Onboard Administrator is the primary by default?
A.the left one
B.the right one
C.the active one
D.the first one installed
ANSWER: A

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Some practice about the latest Juniper Networks JN0-331 exam which are updated by Test4actual,maybe it will help you pass your exams.
1. Regarding zone types, which statement is true?
A. You cannot assign an interface to a functional zone.
B. You can specifiy a functional zone in a security policy.
C. Security zones must have a scheduler applied.
D. You can use a security zone for traffic destined for the device itself.
Answer: D
2. Regarding attacks, which statement is correct?
A. Both DoS and propagation attacks exploit and take control of all unprotected network devices.
B. Propagation attacks focus on suspicious packet formation using the DoS SYN-ACK-ACK proxy flood.
C. DoS attacks are directed at the network protection devices, while propagation attacks are directed at the servers.
D. DoS attacks are exploits in nature, while propagation attacks use trust relationships to take control of the devices.
Answer: D
3. Click the Exhibit button.
[edit schedulers]
user@host# show
scheduler now {
monday all-day;
tuesday exclude;
wednesday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
thursday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
}
[edit security policies from-zone Private to-zone External]
user@host# show
policy allowTransit {
match {
source-address PrivateHosts;
destination-address ExtServers;
application ExtApps;
}
then {
permit {
tunnel {
ipsec-vpn myTunnel;
}
}
}
scheduler-name now;
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what are the actions of the security policy?
A. The policy will always permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel.
B. The policy will permit transit packets only on Monday, and use the IPsec VPN Mytunnel.
C. The policy will permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday and Wednesday 7am to
6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
D. The policy will always permit transit packets, but will only use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday and
Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
Answer: C
4. Which two statements are true regarding proxy ARP? (Choose two.)
A. Proxy ARP is enabled by default.
B. Proxy ARP is not enabled by default.
C. JUNOS security devices can forward ARP requests to a remote device when proxy ARP is enabled.
D. JUNOS security devices can reply to ARP requests intended for a remote device when proxy ARP is enabled.
Answer: BD
5. For IKE phase 1 negotiations, when is aggressive mode typically used?
A. when one of the tunnel peers has a dynamic IP address
B. when one of the tunnel peers wants to force main mode to be used
C. when fragmentation of the IKE packet is required between the two peers
D. when one of the tunnel peers wants to specify a different phase 1 proposal
Answer:A

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6. Click the Exhibit button.
[edit groups]
user@host# show
node0 {
system {
host-name NODE0;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
node1 {
system {
host-name NODE1;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.2/24;
}
}
}
}
}
In the exhibit, what is the function of the configuration statements?
A. This section is where you define all chassis clustering configuration.
B. This configuration is required for members of a chassis cluster to talk to each other.
C. You can apply this configuration in the chassis cluster to make configuration easier.
D. This section is where unique node configuration is applied.
Answer: D
7. Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms does not forward traffic by default; a traditional router forwards traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms uses session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms performs route lookup for every packet; a traditional router performs route lookup only for the first packet.
Answer: BC
8. Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms secures traffic by default; a traditional router does not secure traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms allows for session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses packetbased forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms separates broadcast domains; a traditional router does not separate broadcast domains.
Answer: BC
9. A traditional router is better suited than a firewall device for which function?
A. VPN establishment
B. packet-based forwarding
C. stateful packet processing
D. Network Address Translation
Answer: B
10. Which three functions are provided by JUNOS Software for security platforms? (Choose three.)
A. VPN establishment
B. stateful ARP lookups
C. Dynamic ARP inspection
D. Network Address Translation
E. inspection of packets at higher levels (Layer 4 and above)
Answer:ADE

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Exam Number: 642-681
Associated Certifications: Cisco Advanced Wireless LAN Design Specialist
Duration: 75 minutes (60-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
Update Time:2009-11-17

Exam Description
The 642-681 AWLANSE Advanced Wireless LAN for System Engineers exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Advanced Wireless LAN Design Specialist certification. This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of WLAN basics such as RF, antenna theory, and 802.11a, b, and g standards. The exam also tests the candidate’s ability to describe, design, and support the Cisco Unified Wireless Network products Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Cisco Wireless LAN Fundamentals, Cisco Wireless LAN Advance Topics and Lifecycle Services for Adv WLAN course.

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-681
Exam Name: Advanced Wireless LAN for System Engineers Exam
Questions and Answers:84Q&A
Update Time:2009-11-17
Price:$125.00

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Test4actual 646-276 exam dumps has cover 96% of real exam questions and answers.

1. A global group of specialized companies employ collaboration services to form a chain to increase their strategic offerings.
What is this called?
Select the best response.
A. globalization
B. atomization
C. focalization
D. specialization
Answer:B
2. Which two business patterns are the strongest indicators of a need for a collaboration solution? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Parts suppliers are involved in the design process.
B. Branch offices regularly receive product briefings.
C. Management teams often travel.
D. Development teams are geographically dispersed.
Answer:AD
3. BikeMaster is a growing high-end bicycle manufacturer. Which question is recommended as a first attempt to expose their
need for a collaboration standard?
Select the best response.
A. Which collaboration tools do BikeMaster’s suppliers use?
B. What tool is BikeMaster’s main competitor using for collaboration software?
C. What are the steps of the BikeMaster product development cycle?
D. Which international standards bodies must BikeMaster adhere to?
Answer:C
4. Which question would most likely be spoken by a prospect ready for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace?
Select the best response.
A. How do I expand text messaging with customers?
B. How do I expand video conferencing?
C. How do I expand online product demonstrations?
D. How do I expand voicemail in the call center?
Answer:C
5. A company needs to share product schematics for a highly sensitive product under design. Which factor indicates that Cisco
Unified MeetingPlace is a good solution?
Select the best response.
A. There is little network bandwidth available to accommodate schematic viewing.
B. The schematics are highly sensitive and must be shared behind the firewall.
C. The schematics must be annotated during the meeting.
D. There must be a signoff on the schematics during meetings.
Answer:B

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6. Which business leader is most likely to drive the purchase of a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution?
Select the best response.
A. research and development manager in a multi-national software company
B. communications consultant hired by a pharmaceutical company
C. Chief Information Officer of a global sales company
D. Chief Technical Officer of a multi-national service provider
Answer:A
7. Which individual described is most likely to drive the purchase of a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution?
Select the best response.
A. Chief of Retail Sales in a global specialty clothing retailer
B. Director of Information Technology in a major pharmaceutical company
C. Director of Competitive Marketing in a global network technology manufacturer
D. Executive Vice President for Sales in a multi-national heavy equipment manufacturer
Answer:B
8. Which factor is the greatest key differentiator in a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution?
Select the best response.
A. client application footprint
B. ROI reporting tools
C. integration with security offerings
D. failover strategies
Answer:C
9.A key business decision maker tells you his opinion of web conferencing:
I was in a web conference a few weeks ago held by a consultant. I’m sure there were some great things being said, but the slides
were poorly done and one of my peers kept interrupting the speaker. I get irritated at having my schedule broken, and this
meeting went 25 minutes overtime. I’m not sure I’m a fan of web conferencing.
Which would be the best Cisco Unified MeetingPlace feature to highlight?
Select the best response.
A. simple interface to silence or eject participants
B. clear graphic presentation
C. ease of scheduling
D. time reminders at conference end
Answer:B
10. A major animation studio uses a variety of desktops; Macintosh, PC, Linux and Unix. They are considering web
conferencing to share storyboards and animation between design and rendering teams around the world. Which Cisco Unified
MeetingPlace feature would be the most important differentiator for their success?
Select the best response.
A. high-speed graphic downloads
B. multi-platform support
C. simple user interface
D. small client footprint
Answer:B

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1. Which product can deploy virtual SSL security contexts logically across the data center network from a single physical
device?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Module
B. Cisco Storage Services Module
C. Cisco Application Control Engine Module
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Answer:C
2. What two things can a business implement to achieve better utilization of IT resources? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. distributed management
B. role-based access control
C. embedded network intelligence
D. consolidation of data center resources
E. business continuity with mirrored primary and secondary sites
Answer:CD
3. Which explanation best describes the difference between a data center sales cycle and a traditional network sales cycle?
Select the best response.
A. A data center sales cycle begins much earlier in a project.
B. A data center account manager requires more technical skills than commercial skills.
C. A data center sales professional should use the customer’s network team to advise him when best to get involved in the sales
cycle.
D. A data center sales professional should wait until the design phase is complete before determining which Cisco solution best
fits the requirements.
Answer:A
4. What are blade switches?
Select the best response.
A. end-of-row switches
B. top-of-rack switches
C. modules that fit into MDS switches
D. modules that fit into blade server chassis
Answer:D
5. How does the Cisco ACE XML gateway improve server performance?
Select the best response.
A. by blocking XML traffic to the server
B. by offloading XML functions from the server
C. by providing SSL security for XML transfers
D. by translating XML messages to HTML messages
Answer:B

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6. Which feature is a feature of Cisco WAAS?
Select the best response.
A. firewall security
B. TCP optimization
C. Ethernet optimization
D. server load balancing
Answer:B
7. What is the function of Cisco Data Mobility Manager?
Select the best response.
A. array-based data migration
B. fabric-based data migration
C. server-based data migration
D. appliance-based data migration
Answer:B
8. What are two benefits of unified fabric? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. reduced cabling
B. increased latency
C. reduced throughput
D. reduction of server adapters required for I/O
E. reduced I/O bandwidth, which allows Fibre Channel over Ethernet to work
Answer:AD
9. Which statement is likely to be true about the role of a customer’s chief security officer?
Select the best response.
A. The chief security officer has a technology focus.
B. The chief security officer works closely with the chief technology officer to make technology decisions about which products
to use for data center security.
C. The chief security officer might have significant influence on the operation of the data center without necessarily having any
understanding of the technology deployed in the data center.
D. The chief security officer has an understanding of techniques and technologies such as RBAC, SSL, IDS, and firewalls but
leaves the product selection decisions to the data center manager.
Answer:C
10. What benefit does network-based virtualization bring to the overall virtualization strategy for the data center?
Select the best response.
A. merging the core and aggregation layers
B. carrying multiple protocols across the same network
C. combining ports for high availability and redundancy
D. deploying multiple service contexts on the same hardware
Answer:D

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Although each product varies in complexity and depth, all certification exams are created specifically for customers and cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, product administration, day-to-day maintenance, and troubleshooting.

This program consists of a technical exam at a product/version level that validates that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to plan, design, deploy, and monitor Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers in a small-to-medium size enterprise environment.

To achieve this level of certification, candidates must pass the technical exam and accept the Symantec Certification Agreement.

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Exam Number/Code: 642-357
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Storage Network Solutions
“Cisco Others Certification “, also known as 642-357 exam, is a Cisco certification.
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With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 88 Q&A to your 642-357 exam preparation. In the 642-357 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Cisco Others Certification helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

1. Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. LUN Zoning
B. Read-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF
Answer: ABD
2. Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
Select the best response.
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: D
3. Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
Select the best response.
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to Fibre Channel switch standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Answer: C
4. Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.
B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.
C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.
D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.
Answer: BD
5. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer prevent unauthorized
hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C

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