1.When the Revenue Tab in Project Controller is configured for Revenue Recognition to post to evenue? how is the general ledger account selected during the posting process?
A.In the following order: First, from the Task Maintenance screen. If no account is defined, then from the Project Maintenance screen and lastly from the Project Controller Setup screen (Revenue Setup Tab).
B.From the project or task, depending on the Percent Complete and Revenue Recognition Setup screen options. If none is defined there, then the Project Controller Revenue Setup Revenue GL Acct is used.
C.From the GL account that is linked to the Revenue Account Category.
D.Only from the Revenue Tab of Project Controller Setup.
Correct:B

2.What wildcard is available for Revenue Recognition General Ledger subaccount postings?
A.p Project Subaccount
B.e Employee Subaccount
C.b Billing Project Subaccount
D.t Task Subaccount
Correct:A

3.The Revenue Recognition process is run in Final mode on May 25. On May 31, the Revenue Recognition process is run again before month end closing. If a project was 80% complete on May 25 and due to additional reclassification expenses posted to the project it is now 75% completed, what postings will be made by Revenue Recognition?
A.The 5% decrease will be posted to the project and general ledger.
B.Nothing: Revenue Recognition can only be run in Final mode once each period.
C.A manual entry to the project and general ledger is required.
D.The original posting will be deleted and a new posting generated for both the project and general ledger.
Correct:A

4.For any project related transaction to be eligible for transfer to a project via the Financial Transaction Transfer process the status must be?
A.Released
B.Posted
C.Balanced
D.In Process
Correct:A

5.A project is set up in October of 2001, and costs and billings are generated. The YearEnd Close process is run in Project Controller for 2001. If the Project Profitability Report is run in January of 2002, the PTD and YTD amounts are equal. What happened?
A.The YearEnd Close function processed incorrectly. Rerun YearEnd Close to correct the issue.
B.The contract type was defined incorrectly in Project Maintenance. Selecting the correct contract type will change the PTD amounts.
C.There are no transactions for January 2002. Once transactions are entered, the PTD and YTD balances will be different.
D.The project is not set up to carry a balance forward at yearend. Check the box in Project Maintenance and rerun YearEnd Close.
Correct:D

http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-218.html

6.At what level(s) are Project Budgets and EACs created?
A.By General Ledger account.
B.At the Project level.
C.For an Account Category within a Task within a Project.
D.For a Task only within a Project.
Correct:C

7.What field for selection is the most common field to define in Flexible Report Column Maintenance?
A.Flexible Key
B.Project
C.General Ledger Account
D.Account Category
Correct:D

8.Which of the following best describe what happens during the Financial Transaction Transfer(FTT) process?
A.Projectrelated transactions are moved from their respective transaction tables to the project transaction table.
B.Projectrelated transactions are copied from their respective transaction tables to the project transaction table.
C.Customer and Vendor balances are transferred to projects.
D.Only posted General Ledger transactions are transferred to projects.
Correct:B

9.The users would like to add a field to the Project Maintenance Additional Information screen that defines the type of cargo a ship is carrying. Each ship is set up as a project. What is the correct process for setting up a new field that validates against a user defined table?
A.Enter values in the Code File Maintenance screen for Code Type “CARGO” and make a project ID field visible.
B.Modify Flexible Key Maintenance to refer to the Code Type ARGO?
C.Use Customization Manager to make a user field visible on the Project Maintenance screen so the users can enter the type of cargo.
D.Create a Code Type to store types of cargo, enter the different types of cargo in the Code File Maintenance screen, make a project ID Maintenance Field visible and validate it against the new Code Type.
Correct:D

10.Which of the following best describes EAC?
A.A revised budget amount for the period or project.
B.A remaining budget amount for the period or project.
C.Contract changes for the project.
D.Estimated cost overruns for the project.
Correct:A

http://www.test4actual.com

11.Budgets are entered at what level of a project?
A.Project and task level budgets can be entered into the Budget Maintenance screen.
B.Employee level within account category.
C.Budgets must always be entered for a project, task and Account Category combination.
D.Budgets must always be entered for an Account Category within the project.
Correct:C

12.The Contract Type field in Project Maintenance is used for which of the following?
A.The field is informational only.
B.The AR Invoice Interface and the Project Billing Analysis report.
C.Allocation Processor
D.The Invoice Interface only.
Correct:B

13.Which of the following best describe how Project Charge Entry batches post when they are released?
A.Units and Amounts to Projects.
B.Debits and Credits to Projects.
C.Debits and Credits to the General Ledger.
D.Units and Amounts to Projects and Debits and Credits to the General Ledger.
Correct:A

14.An Accounts Payable voucher batch is entered and released in period 042002.
If the current Period in Project Controller is 052002,what will occur during the Financial Transaction Transfer process?
A.The transaction will not transfer unless you have the box checked in Project Controller Setup to allow ‘prior periods’.
B.Nothing, Prior Period entries cannot be selected in Financial Transaction Transfer.
C.The transaction will transfer into the current Project Controller period regardless of the period entered into Accounts Payable.
D.The transaction date will be used to copy the transaction into the appropriate Project Controller period.
Correct:A

15.In which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate to create a new Code Type?
A.A project user defined ID field must be limited to a userdefined list of values.
B.One segment of the project ID needs to be validated against a user defined table.
C.Only certain employees can charge their expenses to a specific project.
D.Only certain employees can charge their time to a specific project.
Correct:A B

http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-218.html

16.Summarized project information is stored in what groupings?
A.Month, Year, Project
B.Week, Month, Quarter
C.Month, Quarter, Year
D.Month, Project
Correct:A

17.The Project Net Profit screen displays which two types of Account Categories?
A.Asset and Liability
B.Revenue and Expense
C.NonAccounting and Revenue
D.Asset and Revenue
Correct:B

18.Transactions that make up Committed amounts on a project may consist of which of the following?
A.Unposted Timecards
B.Unapplied Accounts Receivable Payments
C.Open Accounts Payable Vouchers
D.Purchase Orders
Correct:A D

19.By default, account categories sort in ascending alphabetical order in screens and on reports.
How can the display order be changed?
A.By using the Code File ‘SORT’ to change the sort order
B.By assigning the Account Categories to a Task in Task Maintenance
C.By using the Sort Number field in Account Category Maintenance
D.The default sort order cannot be changed.
Correct:C

20.What are the three levels of hierarchy in Project Controller transactions?
A.Contract, Project, Type
B.Customer, Project, Task
C.Project, Task, Account Category
D.Project, Account Category, Employee
Correct:C

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-218.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

Exam Details
The IBM Storage IBM Storage exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate IBM Storage IBM Storage certification. The IBM Storage IBM Storage (000-200) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/000-200.html
http://www.test580.com

Exam Details
The VMWare Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the VMWare Certified Network Associate VMWare Certification certification. The VMWare Certification (VCP-410) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection VMWare Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to VMWare Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various VMWare networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/vcp-410.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

I have passed the Cisco 650-180 exam recently,if you are worried about it,maybe I can share some experience with you.A colleague of mine, who have got the Cisco certification, recommend Test4actual to me, saying that without the help of test4actual, he couldn’t have passed the exam.
Any doubts about the products quality left? Try the Test4actual Cisco 650-180 exam free demo before buy!

1.Which two are benefits of installong Cisco Monitor Direstor at an SMB site for the partner telling the the solution?(Choose two)
A. simplifies Smart Bussinese Communications System installation
B. allows the end customer to get free software updates
C. aotomated menthly reporting on system performance
D. monthly recurring revenue model
Answer:C,D

2.Which two are requirements for a device to join a Cisco UC520 created communisty?(Choose two)
A. no use at IP addresses
B. teleworker access routers must be preconfigured with a VPN
C. telnet disabled on the Cisco CE520
D. HTTP(s) enabled on the Cisco CE520
E. Cisco Configuration Assistance installed on user PCs
Answer:B

3.How is the LAN designed in the Smart Bussiness Communications System? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following
A. using the access layer
B. combines the access and distebution layers
C. combines the core and distribution layers
D. using the core layer
E. using the disteibution layer
Answer:A

4..What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Bussiness Communications System?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871w
Answer:B

5.Select the three foundational hardware compotents that comprise the Smart Bussiness Communicaton System(Choose three)
Select exactly 3 answer(s) from the following
A. Cisco UnifitedCallConnector
B. Cisco UnifiedCommunicaton 500 series
C. Cisco Monitor Directory
D. Cisco 500 series phones
E. Catalyst Express
F. Ipcelerate IpamartSuite
Answer:B,D,E

http://www.test4actual.com/650-180.html

6.According to the Cisco Smart Bussiness Rocklmap(SBR), what are two resoures to use a consultatire selling approach in selling Cisco products and solutions to SMB customers?(Chosser two)
A. Selling strategies must address business and technology needs rather than explain product features,benefits, and technical attributes.
B. The business decision maker (BDM) may deny the technical decision maker(TMD) request for budget,basing a decision primarity on price and may not readily see the value of the Cisco brand.
C. Regulatory compliance(for example, HIPAA and the Graham-Leach-Bliley Act) is drving the need for customers to effectively document and secure data.
D. You can provide a more effective,immediate,and long-term solution for your clients.
Answer:A,B

7.Which Cisco aupport service product targets customers with up to 48 users on a netwotk where voice communicaton is mission-critical to bussiness operation?
A. Cisco Technical Assistance Center
B. SMARTnet Partner Service
C. Cisco Smart Care Sernice
D. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
E. CiscoSMARTnet for SBCS
Answer:E

8.In the Cisco Mobility Express product line. What attribute exists ONLY on the UC520 model? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following
A. Use of WPA2 security
B. Comes with bundled CCA Management software
C. Ability to foundation without an extermal controller
D. Use of 802.11 signaling
Answer:A

9.What is a primary partner benefit of selling services?
A. Increased margina
B. Easier customer sales cycle
C. Available financing options
D. Fewer customer call backs
Answer:A

10.How are voice and data devices organized in the LAN for the Smart Business Comunications System? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following.
A. By WAN address
B. Bu VLAN asscociation
C. By work group affiliation
D. By LAN switechpost assignment
Answer:B

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/650-180.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

I have passed the Cisco 650-175 exam recently,if you are worried about it,maybe I can share some experience with you.A colleague of mine, who have got the Cisco certification, recommend Test4actual to me, saying that without the help of test4actual, he couldn’t have passed the exam.
Any doubts about the products quality left? Try the Test4actual Cisco 650-175 exam free demo before buy!

1.What are two indicators that a customer should consider the installation of a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)
A.want to provide employee wireless access
B.want to provide unsecured wireless access
C.need between two and three access points
D.need one access point
E.need more than four access points
F.want to provide guest wireless access
Answer:EF

2.What resource would you recommend to a new Cisco partner for a variety of tools? (Choose one.)
A.Channel Incentive program
B.Unified Communications for SMB
C.Partner Central
D.Steps to Success
Answer:C

3.Which statement best describes what Cisco Smart Care Service provides? (Choose tonw.)
A.bundled, unlimited support with the purchase of any Cisco product
B.bundled technical support and maintenance for Cisco networks
C.fee-based add-on support and tech-to-tech assistance for Cisco products
D.technical support, maintenance, and monitoring to Cisco networks
Answer:D

4.Which two functions does Cisco Configuration Assistant provide? (Choose two.)
A.call forwarding
B.command line configuration
C.wireless connectivity
D.device discovery
E.call routing configuration
Answer:DE

5.Increased productivity, minimized legal risks, and improvements in “green” operation can be easily linked to Cisco solutions in which technology area? (Choose one.) on the destination network, between the server and a router
A. Security
A.voice
B.routing and switching
C.eCommerce
D.web collaboration
Answer:A

http://www.test4actual.com/650-175.html

6.For which of the following campus LAN areas is the Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series Switch most suitable?(Choose one.)
A.backbone area
B.distribution area
C.core area
D.access area
Answer:D

7.Which Cisco support service product targets customers with up to 48 users on a network where voice.communication is mission-critical to business operation? (Choose one.)
A.SMARTnet Partner Service
B.Cisco Smart Foundation Service
C.Cisco Technical Assistance Center
D.Cisco SMARTnet for SBCS
E.isco Smart Care Service
Answer:D

8.In which areas do SMBs tend to require better products than found in retail stores?(Choose one.)
A.voice, intranet, and security
B.security, voice, and wide-area networking
C.wireless, intranet, and wide-area networking
D.wireless, security, and voice
Answer:D

9.What are three of the attributes sought in a target customer for Cisco Smart Foundation services? (Choose three.)
A.50 or fewer network devices
B.comprehensive network-wide support requirements
C.fewer than 250 network users
D.network is not mission-critical to business
E.network is considered mission-critical
F.,skilled on-site customer IT staff
Answer:ACD.

10.Which three characteristics are true of the ProtectLink Gateway product? (Choose three.)
A.provides encryption between a browser and a web server
B.provides web server content filtering
C.is bundled in the SPS platform
D.provides content filtering for e-mail
E.blocks 97% of SPAM
F.protects from spyware and phishing attacks
Answer:BDF

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/650-175.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

IBM 000-200 exam has updated by Test4actual aimming at helping you pass your exams.

1. Which of the following competitors offers customers a virtual tape solution for mainframes?
A.Sony
B.NetApp
C.Quantum
D.Sun Storage TekWArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: D

2. Which of the following customer environments is addressed by the NSeries?
A.A customer wanting to implement a global file system
B.A customer with Windows CIFS and AIX NFS requirements
C.A customer who requires good scalability and performance
D.A customer who needs to consolidate multiple storage controllers under one management interface WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: B

3. A retail customer is experiencing bottlenecks in their IT environment.
Which of the following responses address this issue?
A.Meet with the IT Director
B.Present IBM’s On Demand storage strategy to CFO
C.Trial install of Tivoli Provisioning Manager (TPM)
D.Perform Disk Magic study WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: A

4. The Information Technology Director at a prospect is interested in purchasing the N3300, and has asked the storage specialist to help present the solution to the Finance Director.
Which of the following should the storage specialist include in the proposal?
A.CIFS and NFS support is included in the price
B.A configuration showing the technical detail of the solution
C.N3300 combines iSCSI, NAS and FiberChannel into a single storage solution
D.Lowers Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) and improves Return On Investment (ROI)WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: D

5. A retail customer has a combination of Microsoft Windows file servers with direct attached storage and Power Systems with AIX database servers SAN attached to a DS4700. The DS4700 is reaching capacity, and the customer needs to migrate to a more scalable storage system.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to ask first?
A.Will all servers be SAN attached?
B.What is the budget allocated for storage?
C.What is the projected storage requirement?
D.How much space is available in the current storage systems?WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: B

http://www.test4actual.com/000-200.html

6. The storage specialist is preparing the IBM System Storage DS6800 proposal for replacing a customer’s EMC Symmetrix who’s warranty has expired.
Which of the following TCO advantages should be highlighted in the proposal?
A.Larger disk capacity
B.Flexible warranty and lower power consumption
C.Standard three year warranty and no software maintenance
D.FlashCopy included versus extra cost for TimeFinder WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: B

7. A small bio-technical company is interested in implementing an IBM Storage solution.
Which of the following tools can be used to help justify the cost of an IBM System Storage solution to a customer?
A.Disk Magic
B.Total Cost of Ownership Now (TCO)
C.Capacity Magic
D.System Storage Productivity Center (SSPC) for diskWArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: B

8. A customer has Microsoft Windows, Sun, and Power servers with internal disk. They are porting several applications from other platforms to these servers and need 5 TB of shared disk.
Which of the following is the most cost effective, highly available, shared storage solution for this customer?
A.N5200
B.DS8300 Storage Server
C.DS3400 Storage Server
D.DS5300 Storage ServerWArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: D

9. A healthcare customer is not satisfied with the utilization of their heterogeneous storage devices.
Which of the following solutions should the IBM storage specialist recommend to better provision their storage on demand?
A.Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)
B.IBM SAN Volume Controller (SVC)
C.IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center (TPC)
D.Tivoli Provisioning Manager (TPM)WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: B

10. A customer has a heterogeneous storage environment and their storage growth rate is 75% per year.
Which of the following products would allow this customer to add new applications, new servers and more storage while not forcing them to schedule outages to add these upgrades?
A.SAN Volume Controller
B.Tivoli Content Manager
C.Tivoli Storage Manager
D.System Storage Productivity Center (SSPC)WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: A

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/000-200.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

Test4actual has updated the latest Cisco 646-671 exam,maybe it will help you pass your exams.

1. A growing retail company with 600 employees is considering a Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution. In meeting with many members of the executive team, you have learned that the main concern of the company is the lack of time that the sales staff has on the sales floor to interact with customers because of time spent doing inventory management. Which of the following is the most appropriate point to focus on when proposing a Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution to the executive team of the company?
Select the best response.
A. With the Cisco solution, you can provide voice-over-Wi-Fi phones to all your staff for free, which improves their productivity, allowing them to spend more time with customers.
B. With the Cisco solution, you can enable mobile applications, which provide tangible cost savings and return on investment (ROI) through improved productivity.
C. The Cisco solution allows sales staff to do inventory ordering right at the product shelf, which increases the opportunities for customer interactions and raises the possibility of higher sales.
D. The Cisco solution enables improved productivity due to mobility, which leads to quicker inventory management.
Answer: C

2. An enterprise company hires a management consultant, Mary Hunt, to improve corporate knowledge-management systems.The role requires her to be highly mobile within the enterprise as she gathers information from a variety of employees. When Mary is back at her desk, she must compare her new data with the data hosted on the corporate servers. After she logs in, the network recognizes her consultant status and allocates her the appropriate access rights.
Which of the following enables this scenario?
Select the best response.
A. location-based services
B. guest access
C. enhanced security
D. network admission control (NAC)
Answer: B

3. Which two components would you find in a WLAN? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. fiber-optic cabling
B. access points
C. high-speed satellite transmissions
D. client adapters
E. MPLS Networks
Answer: BD

4. A growing retail company needs to become PCI-compliant. Which of the following services enables this?
Select the best response.
A. location-based services
B. voice-over-Wi-Fi
C. enhanced security
D. RFID asset tracking services
Answer: C

5. Ray Thomas, a global sales manager at a mid-sized, commercial company, is on his way from the conference room to his office. At the same time, a client who wants to complete a large business transaction with Ray’s company is trying to reach Ray by phone. The Cisco Unified Communications System determines that Ray is not at his desk and automatically routes the call to his current location. Ray accepts the call while walking back to his office. After he arrives, he transparently transfers the call to his desk phone, freeing his hands to access the information on his computer to complete the transaction.
Which of the following services enables this scenario?
Select the best response.
A. location-based services
B. voice-over-Wi-Fi
C. guest access
D. Intrusion Protection Services
Answer: B

http://www.test4actual.com/646-671.html

6. A small healthcare facility often misplaces expensive assets, such as IV pumps and wheelchairs. To solve this problem, the facility placed Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags on its valuable property. Now when pieces of equipment are missing,employees can determine their exact location within minutes using a Cisco Wireless Control System management interface.
Which of the following services enables this scenario?
Select the best response.
A. enhanced security
B. Voice over Wi-Fi
C. location-based services
D. WCS mapping and tracking
Answer: C

7. Which two of the following are primary benefits of voice-over-Wi-Fi services? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. reduced cellular phone costs
B. reduced cost of replacing lost assets
C. increased employee productivity
D. a single profile across all network types
E. enhanced 911 services for tracking cellular users
Answer: AC

8. Which three of the following are technology components of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. unified advanced services
B. Self-Defending Network
C. network fault management
D. mobility platform
E. network management
F. wireless handsets
Answer: ADE

9. The CIO of a small, commercial company wants to learn about the cost benefits of enabling voice-over-Wi-Fi services. How do you describe the service to him?
Select the best response.
A. Voice-over-Wi-Fi that is integrated into the wired network allows a single control point to guarantee the quality of the call, regardless of the transport over which the call is carried. This leads to significant cost savings.
B. Voice-over-Wi-Fi provides continued cost savings through the convergence of communications devices.
C. With voice-over-Wi-Fi, the Cisco Unified wireless solution supports quality of service.
D. With voice-over-Wi-Fi, the telephony system recognizes Wi-Fi handsets in the same way that it recognizes traditional desktop phones, which allows employees to make and receive calls when they are mobile.
Answer: B

10. Which three of the following benefits are the primary benefits of location-based services? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. reduced cellular phone costs
B. increased employee productivity
C. reduced cost of replacing lost assets
D. streamlined business processes
E. a single profile across all network types
F. Radio Resource Management
Answer: BCD

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/646-671.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

Test4actual has updated the latest HP hp0-j36 exam,maybe it will help you pass your exams.

1. Which statement about volumes is correct? (Select three.)
A. Volumes can be part of different clusters.
B. Each volume belongs to a single cluster.
C. For database applications, different volumes should be used for database files and log files.
D. Volumes in the same cluster must have the same replication level.
E. Volumes can be migrated to different clusters within the same management group.
F. Additional volumes require additional storage nodes in the cluster.
Answer: BCE

2. Where is RAID configured in HP LeftHand SAN solutions?
A. at the volume level
B. at the storage node level
C. at the cluster level
D. at the management group level
Answer: B

3. Which types of host bus adapters (HBA) can be used for the iSCSI protocol? (Select two.)
A. SW iSCSI initiator without a NIC (network interface card)
B. iSCSI HBA with TCP offload engine (TOE)
C. Fibre Channel HBA
D. NIC with SW iSCSI initiator
E. iSCSI HBA with TCP TOE SW iSCSI initiator
Answer: BD

4. Which statements about iSCSI are correct? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI does not offer any security features.
B. iSCSI installation is less complex than Fibre Channel installation.
C. iSCSI is only supported by Microsoft Windows operating systems.
D. iSCSI is available for the most common OS platforms.
E. iSCSI is a parallel data protocol.
Answer: BD

5. Which statement is true about the iSCSI initiator?
A. The iSCSI initiator is only active during read operations.
B. The iSCSI initiator represents the LUNs.
C. The iSCSI initiator resides on the host and connects to the targets.
D. The iSCSI initiator is a software package running on the host.
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com/hp0-j36.html

6. Which statements about HP LeftHand SAN replication levels are correct? (Select three.)
A. Copies are located on different clusters.
B. Redundant copies of blocks reside on different storage nodes.
C. Performance improves as the number of copies increases.
D. Up to four copies can be created.
E. The replication level is defined per storage node.
F. The replication level cannot exceed the number of storage nodes in the cluster.
Answer: BDF

7. What are typical examples of snapshot utilization? (Select three.)
A. replacement for traditional backups
B. protection against disk failures
C. protection against multiple hardware failures
D. protection against manual data deletion
E. file level restore without tape or backup software
F. source volumes for backup creation
Answer: DEF

8. Which statements about remote copy are correct? (Select two.)
A. Remote copy is always thin provisioned.
B. Remote copy can be synchronous and asynchronous.
C. Remote copy is an asynchronous replication of a volume.
D. Remote copies cannot be mounted.
E. Remote copy is asynchronous replication between different clusters only.
Answer:AC

9. for what are IP SANs best suited? (Select three.)
A. applications requiring minimum latency
B. environments that require Fibre Channel infrastructure
C. high availability environments
D. geographic disaster recovery
E. environments with existing Ethernet infrastructure
F. non-shared storage implementation
Answer: CDE

10. Which statement about Virtual IP Load Balancing (VIPLB) is correct?
A. VIPLB is part of the Windows Solution pack.
B. VIPLB is a software driver installed on the host.
C. VIPLB replaces the iSCSI redirect function.
D. VIPLB directs iSCSI communication to the least busy storage node in the cluster.
Answer: D

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/hp0-j36.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

VMWare vcp-410 exam has updated by Test4actual aimming at helping you pass your exams.

1. An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

2. Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

3. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

4. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)?
A. Download VMware vCenter Server
B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host
C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host’s inventory
D. Browse Datastores in this Host’s inventory
E. Download VMware Web Access Client
Answer: ABD

5. When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

http://www.test4actual.com/vcp-410.html

6. The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

7. Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

8. Additional licensing is required once the number of cores per CPU reaches which of the following?
A. 16 or more cores
B. 12 or more cores
C. 8 or more cores
D. 6 or more cores
Answer: C

9. What is the maximum number of cores that can be used with Standard licensing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 12
D. 6
Answer: D

10. Once vCenter 4.x has been installed, a License Server is required in which of the following instances?
A. A License Server is always required
B. To support ESXi 4.x Hosts
C. To support ESX 3.5 Hosts
D. A License Server is no longer required
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/vcp-410.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

Sun 310-811 exam has updated by Test4actual aimming at helping you pass your exams.

1. Is the following statement true or false? The username you use to connect to MySQL must be the same as the login used to access the operating system.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

2. Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table world.City to it and preload the index?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be used.
Answer:A

3. How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C

4. Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = ‘CAN’\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

5. Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

http://www.test4actual.com/310-811.html

6. Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and processed later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay log.
Answer: B

7. With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B

8. Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+————-+———-+——+—–+———+—————-+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra |
+————-+———-+——+—–+———+—————-+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment |
| Name | char(35) | | | | |
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | | |
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+————-+———-+——+—–+———+—————-+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause. A temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column, then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return values from the
index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column, and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key buffer.
Answer: D

9. The stored function year_to_date is created by the ‘root’@'localhost’ account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
…
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is ‘root’@'localhost’. If a client connects with the account ‘joe’@'localhost’ and calls the year_to_date function, what will happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was ‘root’@'localhost’ that invoked it since SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as ‘joe’@'localhost’ does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account ‘joe’@'localhost’ has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete successfully
Answer: D

10. How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/310-811.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

Sun 310-810 exam has updated by Test4actual aiming at helping you pass your exams.

1. Which one of the following statements can be used to start MySQL 5.0 manually from the command line on windows?
A. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqladmin -u root start
B. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqld
C. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysql_start
Answer: B

2. Another user has issued LOCK TABLES pets READ You can…
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. UPDATE and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: B

3. Which of the following statements are true for locks established by the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It sometimes escalates locks to page level.
B. It sometimes escalates locks to table level.
C. It sometimes escalates locks to page or table level.
D. It never escalates locks to page or table level.
Answer: D

4. Which of the following is true for how the InnoDB storage engine uses diskspace?
A. It stores its data, index and undo information all in its own tablespace.
B. It stores its data in .MYD files, in the respective database directory, and its index and undo information in its own tablespace.
C. It stores its data and index in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database directory, and undo information in its own tablespace.
D. It stores its data, index and undo information in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database directory.
Answer:A

5. Which of the following is true for the command-line programs mysqlcheck and myisamchk?
A. mysqlcheck must run on the server to perform checks and repairs and myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
B. mysqlcheck can perform checks and repairs on a remote server, and myisamchk must run on the server.
C. Both mysqlcheck and myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
D. Neither mysqlcheck or myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
Answer: B

http://www.test4actual.com/310-810.html

6. MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by it’s own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

7. mysqldump can be instructed to dump…
A. Only table structures
B. Only data
C. Both table structures and data
Answer: C

8. Which of the following is true of a MySQL client and server?
A. They must be run on the same type of Operating System.
B. They must be run on the same hardware architecture.
C. They do not have to be run on the same type of Operating System.
D. They do not have to be run on the same hardware architecture.
Answer: CD

9. Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C

10. Of the following mechanisms available to connect a MySQL client to a MySQL database server, which types of connections are only available on Windows based systems?
A. TCP/IP
B. Sockets
C. Shared Memory
D. Named Pipes
Answer: CD

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/310-810.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

Test4actual has updated the latest IBM 000-025 exam,maybe it will help you pass your exams.

1. A customer has an Exchange server on a Windows 2003 and would like to perform daily backups. It is required that the Exchange server is always available. What is the best solution to achieve this?
A. Use NTbackup for Exchange Services.
B. Use only offline backups that uses Logical Volume Snapshot Agent.
C. Use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) for Mail for online backups daily.
D. Use Tivoli Storage Manager client without stopping the Exchange server.
Answer: C

2. A customer requires a large file server backup in the least time possible by using a storage area network (SAN) environment. Which component should be installed on the file server in order to achieve this?
A. Tivoli Management Console
B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D

3. A new storage pool is to be defined for providing off-site data protection by using an existing tape library at the off-site location and needs to provide optimized restore performance in the case of disaster. How should the storage pool be optimally configured?
A. an active-data copy pool that uses a tape device class
B. a copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
C. a copy pool that uses a tape device class with group collocation
D. an active-data copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
Answer: C

4. Which type of device class should be defined in order to use the SnapLock feature in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. DLT device class
B. LTO device class
C. FILE device class
D. DISK device class
Answer: C

5. In a server to server communication (or in enterprise configuration), after defining a target IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server on the Tivoli Storage Manager source server, how can an administrator test that the details entered are correct?
A. Check the Tivoli Storage Manager server activity log.
B. Ping the server from the operating system command line.
C. Use the Ping Server Tivoli Storage Manager command.
D. Open the Tivoli Storage Manager client on the Tivoli Storage Manager server, and see if the client can access the defined Tivoli Storage Manager server.
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com/000-025.html

6. Which client command launches file level VMware Consolidated Backup, eliminates VMware scripts for managing virtual machine snapshots, and automatically performs snapshot management on each virtual machine?
A. dsmc backvm
B. dsmc backup vm
C. dsmc backup vcb
D. dsmc launch backup vm
Answer: B

7. What best describes the default settings for the primary, copy, and active data storage pools processed during creation of the disaster recovery plan by using the prepare command?
A. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
B. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and no active data pools.
C. Process no primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
D. Process no primary pools, no copy pools, and no active data pools.
Answer: B

8. Which client option controls whether IBM Tivoli Storage Manager should create a differential snapshot when performing a snapdiff incremental backup?
A. diffshot
B. snapdiff
C. diffsnapshot
D. Incrsnapshot
Answer: C

9. In order to obtain an individual file level restore of a SnapMirror backup. what must be done?
A. Restore individual file from image backup.
B. Restore TOC, and then restore individual file.
C. Restore full SnapMirror Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
D. Restore IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
Answer: C

10. Which command is issued on IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server administrative command line to view the actual option settings?
A. query node
B. query state
C. query option
D. query config
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/000-025.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

1.Which ledger type is used to track the number of employees associated with each payroll expense account?
A.Budget
B.Statistical
C.Actual
D.Reporting Currency
Correct:B

2.In which periods will transactions update account balances when the Post Transactions process is run?
A.Current period
B.Future periods
C.Prior periods
D.Only periods that have not had transactions posted yet.
Correct:A C

3.Which “Account Types” are recognized by Solomon?
A.Asset, Liability, Revenue only
B.Asset, Liability, Income, Expense
C.Asset, Payable, Receivable, Expense
D.Any account type can be assigned
Correct:B

4.General Ledger transaction and account history detail is being retained for one year. General Ledger was closed for the year in period 122005 and the Delete Detail option was checked. Which of the following functions may still be performed?
A.Print a Trial Balance Report for period 012005.
B.Inquire on account balances for period 062005.
C.Enter a batch to post to period 122005.
D.Enter a batch to post to period 122003.
Correct:A B C

5.What determines the fiscal period for posting a transaction?
A.Current fiscal period value from the GL Setup screen
B.Transaction Date
C.Current business date
D.Period to Post in the data entry screen
Correct:D

http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-213.html

6.A company wishes to allocate Help Desk expenses for the current period to each department based on the number of employees. The number of employees in each department is entered in a statistical ledger. Which allocation method is used?
A.Ledger PeriodtoDate
B.Actual Periodtodate
C.Unit Ratio
D.Actual YeartoDate
Correct:A

7.Which fiscal periods can be entered as the Period to Post in the Journal transactions screen?
A.Any Future Period
B.Any period in the current fiscal year
C.Any prior period in any year.
D.Any prior period as far back as the General Ledger history retention settings.
Correct:A B D

8.Which Ledger ID is the default in the Journal Transaction screen?
A.There is not a default for this field.
B.Budget Ledger
C.Statistical Ledger
D.The “Default Ledger ID” defined in GL Setup.
Correct:D

9.Which of the following functions would save data entry time if a user inputs a similar journal entry each month?
A.Manual or Recurring batch
B.Consolidation batch
C.Allocation Group.
D.Adjustment batch
Correct:A

10.What is the best report to use to verify that FRx financial statements balance to the General Ledger?
A.GL Edit Report
B.GL Batch Register Report
C.GL Transactions Report Unposted format
D.Trial Balance
Correct: D

http://www.test4actual.com

11.When is the “Adjustment” batch type used?
A.Correct a batch of transactions is entered in error
B.Link a corrected batch to an original batch
C.Enter statistical transactions.
D.Make a onesided journal entry
Correct: D

12.How do you change the Default Ledger ID specified in the GL Setup screen?
A.Use Initialize Mode
B.The field can be changed at any time.
C.Once set, this field cannot be changed.
D.Use Customization Manager
Correct:C

13.A company wishes to segment their subaccount as follows: 1. Company Segment, 2. Location,3. Department, 4. Event, 5. Region, 6. Project, 7. Sales Type. How is this accomplished?
A.Define the Subaccount as seven Segments in Flexkey Definition.
B.Recommend the company not use Solomon as the subaccount does not accommodate this scenario.
C.Recommend the client use three segments as seven is just too many.
D.Define one of the segments as part of the natural account and create a subaccount with six segments.
Correct:A

14.How many ledgers can be affected by a single Journal Transactions batch?
A.One
B.One ledger per transaction line
C.One ledger per transaction line, as long as debits equal credits for each ledger in the batch
D.Unlimited
Correct:A

15.Which scenarios would require a new Budget distribution with assigned percentages?
A.Seasonal variations for employee expenses.
B.Equally distribute expenses for office supplies.
C.Monthly variation for utilities.
D.Distribute an expense based on the actual balances for the prior year.
Correct:A C

http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-213.html

16.Which are proper procedures to correct a transaction batch that was released and posted to period 072005 instead of 082005?
A.Delete the batch in the Journal Transactions screen.
B.Use Initialize Mode to edit and “repost” the batch.
C.Enter a new batch to reverse the effect of the transactions in period 072005.
D.Enter a new batch with the appropriate transactions for period 082005.
Correct:C D

17.When can the status of a Subaccount be set to inactive?
A.When it is not defined as a default in Setup or Maintenance screens.
B.When all history is deleted
C.When all transactions are posted
D.Subaccounts cannot be made inactive
Correct:A

18.Which batch types can a user create in the Journal Transactions screen?
A.Allocation
B.Manual
C.Recurring
D.Nonrecurring
Correct:B C D

19.Which Allocation Method is used to allocate office supplies posted to an administrative account to each
department based on the amount of office supply expense in each departmental subaccount?
A.Actual PeriodtoDate
B.LedgerPeriodtoDate
C.Percent
D.Unit Ratio
Correct:A

20.Which is the greatest number of “Budget” type ledgers can you create in Solomon?
A.One.
B.Unlimited
C.Only two per fiscal year
D.Only one per fiscal year
Correct:B

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-213.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

1.There are important differences between a normal level and a detail level. What statements are true about a detail level?
A.The detail level must always be implemented using a spreadsheet control.
B.The detail level is not always implemented using a spreadsheet control.
C.More than one record can be retrieved from the database and displayed at one time.
D.Only one copy of a record is displayed from the database. The user must commit or abandon changes
before moving to another record.
Correct:A C

2.When adding new tables to the Solomon database, which restrictions must you follow?
A.Table names must not contain spaces.
B.Table names must not begin with a number.
C.Table names can not be longer than 8 characters
D.Table names must contain a special character.
Correct:A B

3.Which property of a control is used to tell the Kernel that it is a key field?
A.default
B.level
C.tag
D.DBNav
Correct:B

4.The Solomon kernel is designed to automatically manage the unique identity of records in a detail level by which of the following methods?
A.By the tab sequence of the fields in the spreadsheet.
B.By locating the definition of the primary index on the table in the database and then automatically
enforcing that rule in the user interface.
C.By the ordinal position in which the user entered the records into the spreadsheet.
D.By one or more ey?fields which are visible in the spreadsheet.
Correct:C D

http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-213.html

5.Which statement is true about Record Maintenance?
A.This utility program actually creates new tables in the Solomon database.
B.This utility is used to define the following properties of a table: Name, Fields and Indexes.
C.This utility allows a developer to define the names of new tables. It does not actually create tables in the
Solomon database.
D.This utility reads the actual database schema from the Solomon database and displays all actual tables in that database except for MS SQL system tables.
Correct:C

6.What utility can be used to create text files which contain VB Code and SQL statements that will create a table? The extensions of the two files created will be “DH” and “CRT”.
A.Generate Schema
B.Record Maintenance
C.Parent.exe
D.Field Maintenance
Correct:A

7.Occasionally, data displayed in a field on a window will appear in a different format than what is shown when viewed directly from the database. What property can be checked and/or changed so the data is converted and displayed with the correct format?
A.Fieldclass
B.Fieldname
C.Default
D.Mask
Correct:A D

8.When the Solomon application is launched, which main programs are started
A.Visual Basic
B.Parent.exe
C.Kernel
D.Customization Manager
Correct:B C

9.In order for the Kernel to be able to manage records in the database, data must be broken into logically related groups. What term is used to refer to these groups?
A.data groups
B.related records
C.levels
D.groupies
Correct:C

10.What conditions would require a SetAddr call?
A.If the Solomon Kernel will be responsible for managing the buffer as the primary table for a level.
B.If controls for displaying and updating fields of the buffer are needed.
C.If you wish to expose the variable for access through Customization Manager.
D.If you wish to expose the variable for access through Record Maintenance.
Correct:A B C

http://www.test4actual.com

11.What type of container object must be used to contain the data controls and grid controls for a detail level?
A.Standard Visual Basic Frame control
B.Standard Visual Basic Tab control
C.SAF Container control
D.Any container type control can be used
Correct:B

12.Once the user chooses a company from the Login screen they will be connected to two databases, an application and system database. What type of information is contained in the System Database?
A.Product Registration
B.Accounting Information
C.Customizations
D.Users and Groups
Correct:A C D

13.When a user moves to a line in a grid, the kernel triggers a LineGotFocus event in the Solomon Tools for Visual Basic program. What best describes the purpose of the information that the kernel passes to this event via the MaintFlg parameter?
A.The value indicates the status of the line the user just moved to.
B.The value indicates the status of the line the user just left.
C.The value indicates the status of the logical level the grid is associated with.
D.The value indicates whether the user interface is currently in “gird view” or “form view”.
Correct:A

14.What is true when working with a spreadsheet control?
A.It must be placed into a container.
B.It must be the same size as the container.
C.The Kernel will format the control at run time.
D.The name property of the spreadsheet control must match the name used in the DetailSetup call.
Correct:A C D

15.Solomon uses a standard naming convention for many files used during development. Which file extension is used for SQL script files that contain CREATE INDEX statements?
A.CRT
B.CRX
C.CRP
D.CSV
Correct:B

http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-213.html

16.Although these are not requirements, what are common programming practices when starting a new Tools for Visual Basic project?
A.Name the VBP file and the FRM file the same as the seven character screen number for the program being created.
B.Do not overwrite the template files.
C.Save the VBP file and the FRM file in the newly created development directory.
D.Contact Microsoft Business Solutions to request ID numbers and table names for any new tables you will be adding to the database.
Correct:A B C

17.By default, setting this property will tell the Kernel to validate any data entered into a field and force the user to only enter valid values.
A.DBNav
B.FieldName
C.PV
D.Default
Correct:C

18.How many table joins is the DetailSetup call designed to handle?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Correct:D

19.When working with unbound controls, which statements are true?
A.Unbound controls should never have a value in their level property to associate them with a level.
B.Standard VB controls do not support standard Solomon functionality, such as F3 lookups.
C.Unbound controls are bound to a field in the database.
D.Unbound controls must be attached or associated with a buffer variable.
Correct:B D

20.When the user hits the F3 function key on a field that has a PV property, where does the kernel get the information needed to determine what should be included in the Possible Values window?
A.The Kernel executes an sp_columns SQL stored procedure to get the list of fields of the tables used in the stored procedure named in the PV property of the control
B.The Kernel reads the PVREC.csv file in the DB\CVS fold of the Solomon install directory which contains the definition of the possible values window.
C.The Kernel retrieves a record of the PVREC table in the Solomon system database which contains the definition of the possible values window.
D.The Kernel does not automatically create the possible values window. It’s the VB programmer’s responsibility to create the window and display that window when the F3 event fires
Correct:C

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-213.html
http://www.test580.com

Some Microsoft MB4-212 exam practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.

1.What program do you use to set up SQL back up jobs?
A.SQL Profiler
B.Solomon Database Maintenance
C.Enterprise Manager
D.Service Manager
Correct:C

2.You wish to deploy Solomon in an environment with 34 concurrent users. Which Solomon edition needs to be installed?
A.SingleUser Solomon Standard Edition
B.MultiUser Solomon Standard Edition
C.Solomon Enterprise Edition
D.Solomon Professional
Correct:D

3.Solomon’s access security functions include which of the following?
A.Controlling who can and cannot log into Solomon.
B.Enabling and disabling Microsoft Access database security functions.
C.Identifying Solomon database users and groups.
D.Controlling who does and does not have access rights to certain Solomon windows.
Correct:A C D

4.Which of the following are key elements of the computer system inventory you should conduct before installing Solomon?
A.Document network interface card (NIC) data
B.Verify available RAM meets recommendations
C.Verify available hard drive space
D.Verify you have a backup keyboard
Correct:A B C

5.Which of the following cannot be installed from the Solomon CD(s)?
A.Seagate Crystal Reports
B.Solomon Tools for Visual Basic
C.Microsoft SQL Server
D.Solomon Kernel (SWIM)
Correct:C

6.Good implementation policies recommend a “preinstallation” process. Which of the following should be included in a preinstallation process?
A.You can optionally activate Microsoft SQL Server’s referential integrity capabilities to extend the referential integrity capabilities of Solomon.
B.Protect the data of any current accounting software that Solomon is replacing.
C.Verify adequate hardware and software resources to run Solomon.
D.Obtain the tools and resources used before, during and after the installation of Solomon program files.
Correct:B C D

7.Which Microsoft versions of Windows are supported for a Solomon client installation?
A.Windows 95
B.Windows 2003
C.Windows XP
D.Windows 2000
Correct:B C D

8.What resources does the Solomon Kernel, Swimapi.dll, interface with?
A.Customization Manager module
B.Application modules and report writers
C.Microsoft SQL Server
D.Internet Explorer
Correct:A B C

9.When consulting with a customer in regard to needed hard disk space for Solomon databases,which of the following responses would you choose?
A.A typical system and application database together will not require more than 100 MBs
B.A typical system and application database together will require a minimum of 1 GB required
C.A typical system and application database together need anywhere from 30 GBs to several hundred GBs
D.A typical system and application database together need anywhere from 300 MBs to several GBs
Correct:D

10.Which of the following can increase a Solomon Application database’s hard disk storage requirements?
A.The volume of transactions processed
B.The Solomon modules being used
C.Transaction detail retention settings
D.Installation of application help files
Correct:A B C

http://www.test4actual.com/mb4-212.html

11.Which of the following could cause problems with a Solomon installation?
A.Conflicting .dlls
B.Inadequate RAM
C.Using a USB keyboard and mouse
D.Out of date Windows and SQL Server service packs
Correct:A B D

12.When installing SQL Server to be used with Solomon, you must do which of the following?
A.Install with the default character set.
B.Install it on the same server as Solomon.
C.Set the sa user’s password to “Master”.
D.Install with the default sort order
Correct:A D

13.Which of the following statements about referential integrity is true?
A.Referential integrity is programmed into Solomon application windows.
B.Referential integrity is solely the responsibility of the Solomon System Manager module.
C.Solomon’s referential integrity functions are closely connected to the referential integrity functions provided by Microsoft SQL Server.
D.You can optionally activate Microsoft SQL Server’s referential integrity capabilities to extend the referential integrity capabilities of Solomon.
Correct:A

14.When analyzing a company for Standard Edition vs. Professional Edition for Solomon, what profiles would be most suitable for Standard Edition?
A.Use Flexkey capability to segment the Inventory ID
B.15 users using Solomon six to eight hours/day
C.10 or less users
D.Need Multicompany processing
Correct:A C

15.What Solomon module must be installed and set up for Business Portal to be able to process
reports correctly?
A.General Ledger
B.Accounts Payable
C.Accounts Receivable
D.Application Server
Correct:D

16.Which of the following could cause problems with a Solomon installation?
A.Conflicting .dlls
B.Inadequate RAM
C.Using a USB keyboard and mouse
D.Out of date Windows and SQL Server service packs
Correct:A B D

17.Where does Solomon store the databases that a workstation last logged into?
A.Windows Registry
B.PVRec.csv
C.SolInst.cfg
D.Solomon.ini
Correct:A B D

18.Which option should you select when installing Crystal Reports for use with Solomon?
A.Local Install (Typical)
B.Partial Local Install (Custom)
C.Network Install
D.Partial Network Install
Correct:A

19.How many times can you access Solomon while it is in TrialLoc mode before the system will require registration keys to continue using the product?
A.25
B.20
C.10
D.5
Correct:B

20.What backup scheme would be the most efficient for a company that has a high transaction volume that is concerned with the amount of data that could be lost?
A.A full backup nightly.
B.A full backup weekly and transaction log backups throughout the day.
C.A full backup weekly, a differential backup nightly and transaction log backups throughout the day.
D.A full backup weekly and transaction log backups nightly.
Correct:C

Test4actual provides the latest IT exams,more Microsoft MB4-212 exam you can visit http://www.test4actual.com/MB4-212.html

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test880.com