1.The object model, query processor, and metadata framework are main components of which layer of Microsoft CRM architecture?
A.Database
B.Platform
C.Presentation
D.Application
Correct:B

2.Which layer in the Microsoft CRM architecture includes the Browser Client and Sales for Outlook Client components?
A.Platform
B.Application
C.Database
D.Presentation
Correct:D

3.Communication between the application layer and the platform layer is accomplished using which technology?
A.Remote Procedure Calls
B.HTTP Post Method
C.SOAP
D.Stored Procedure Calls
Correct:C

4.Which technology does the Microsoft CRM browser client use to present the user interface to Internet Explorer?
A.XML
B.Generated Platform API
C.ASP.NET
D.Fetch Builder
Correct:C

5.Which layer of Microsoft CRM performs all security checks independent of the caller?
A.Application
B.Platform
C.Database
D.Presentation
Correct:B

http://www.test4actual.com/mb2-185.html

6.Once you have created a workflow rule, what must you do to it before you can test it in Microsoft CRM?
A.Using Server Manager, run the server task titled “WF100_Publish_Rule” in order to instantiate the workflow rule you created
B.Activate the rule
C.Publish the rule
D.Assign the rule to a business unit
Correct:B

7.Your business is interested in using Microsoft CRM Workflow to automate its business processes and policies. Which types of processes can a company automate with Microsoft CRM Workflow?
A.A process triggered by an event in an unlinked thirdparty application
B.A process that specifies the steps a sales rep should go through to close a sale
C.A process that schedules an activity for a nonMicrosoft
CRM user and places it on his Outlook calendar
D.A process that assigns a sales rep to an account
Correct:B D

8.Which of the following can instantiate a workflow rule against a particular record?
A.A unit
B.An event
C.A code change
D.A manual ‘Apply Rule’ action
Correct:B D

9.The Microsoft CRM Professional Edition includes which of the following Workflow tools?
A.Workflow Manager
B.Workflow Process Mapper
C.Workflow Monitor
D.Workflow Event Scheduler
Correct:A C

10.Workflow Rules can be created for which of the following objects?
A.Accounts
B.Activities
C.Case
D.Lead
Correct:A C D

http://www.test4actual.com

11.Which of the following Actions can you perform on Workflow Processes when in the Process tab of the Workflow Monitor?
A.Abort
B.Delete
C.Pause
D.Stop
Correct:A C

12.Which of the following workflow examples can be implemented using Microsoft CRM workflow (without launching a custom program)?
A.Create a Welcome letter when a prospect becomes a client
B.For new opportunities, go to a web site and obtain a credit report and update a credit field in Microsoft CRM
C.Send a series of emails at specified time intervals to the contacts associated with an opportunity that is ‘on hold’
D.Add a new Microsoft CRM user based on Active Directory
Correct:A C

13.In Microsoft CRM, sales processes are workflow rules designed specifically for which of the following objects?
A.Accounts
B.Cases
C.Leads
D.Opportunities
Correct:D

14.Workflow Manager allows you to perform which of the following actions?
A.Create a rule by copying an existing rule
B.Edit an ‘active’ workflow rule
C.Create rules that consist of conditions and actions defined in an “ifthenelse” format
D.Delete an ‘inactive’ workflow rule
Correct:A C D

15.If multiple workflow rules exist for an object, then how does Microsoft CRM determine the sequence in which the rules should be applied?
A.All rules for the object are applied simultaneously
B.The rules are applied based on the sequence in which they appear in Workflow Manager
C.The rules are applied based on the create date and time of the rule, starting with the oldest rule
D.The rules are applied based on a sequence number that you assign to each rule in Workflow Manager
Correct:B

http://www.test4actual.com/mb2-185.html

16.Which layer of the Microsoft CRM architecture recognizes the occurrence of an event that initiates a workflow rule?
A.Application layer
B.Platform layer
C.Database layer
D.Presentation layer
Correct:B

17.How can workflow rules be changed in the SQL tables by the system administrator?
A.From any workstation that can access the SQL Server
B.Only from the SQL server itself
C.From the current version of Windows Explorer
D.Never. They can only be changed from within Workflow Manager
Correct:D

18.Which of the following are valid actions that you can perform within Workflow Manager?
A.Create rules by copying an existing rule
B.Associate a rule with multiple objects
C.Enable and disable rules
D.Create sales processes for leads and opportunities
Correct:A C

19.Which of the following are actions that can be performed in a workflow rule or a sales process?
A.Assign Object
B.Run SubProcess
C.Delete Activity
D.Post URL
Correct:A B D

20.Which of the following events can trigger a workflow rule?
A.Change Status
B.Assign
C.Disable
D.Create
Correct:A B D

Wanna more information,please visit http://www.test4actual.com

http://www.test4actual.com/mb2-185.html
http://www.hp-exam.com

Some practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.

1. You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries.
How do you proceed?
A. Enable split tunneling.
B. Disable split tunneling.
C. Enable split tunneling with route change monitor.
D. Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor.
Answer: D

2. Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. ACE
C. SAML
D. LDAP
E. SiteMinder
Answer: ABD

3. You create a set of role mapping rules. You select “Merge settings for all assigned roles.” The second role mapping rule has the “Stop processing rules when this rule matches” option selected. A user logs in that matches the first three rules. What happens?
A. This is not a valid combination. The system displays an error message and does not update the configuration.
B. The merge settings override the stop processing option. The user matches all three roles and merging follows the standard merging criteria.
C. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The merge option only merges the roles of the first two rules following the IVE’s built-in permissive merging rules.
D. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The user now just matches the second rule. The merge option is overridden and the user is given only the privileges defined by the second role.
Answer: C

4. When using the J-SAM, where on a client machine would you look to verify that the loopback addresses are assigned correctly?
A. HOSTS file
B. ARP cache
C. LMHOSTS file
D. local route table
Answer: A

5. What is Cache Cleaner used for?
A. to prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
B. to remove content downloaded during the IVE session
C. to remove Web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. to determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
Answer: B

http://www.test4actual.com/jn0-562.html

6. Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: A

7. Which two Web Resource Policy features provide you with the capability to configure the IVE to work with corporate Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)
A. Web Proxy Policies
B. Web Proxy Servers
C. Web Cache Policies
D. Web Passthrough Proxy
Answer: AB

8. Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC.
B. SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection.
C. SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D. SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Answer: CD

9. You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.)
A. Certificate
B. User Attribute
C. RSA Attributes
D. Group Membership
Answer: AB

10. Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A. behind the Internet firewall
B. internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C. both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall
D. parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Answer: A

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/jn0-562.html
http://www.hp-exam.com

Are you worried about Microsoft MB2-184 exam?Maybe Test4actual will help you!
Test4actual latest releases Microsoft MB2-184 exam and with the help of Test4actual,more and more people have passed the exam.
Test4actual free MB2-184 exam demo domnload:http://exam.test4actual.com/MB2-184.pdf
Hope to help you!

http://www.hp-exam.com

Some practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.
1.Which two statements are correct regarding NHTB? (Choose two.)
A. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get nhtb.
B. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface .
C. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface .
D. NHTB is enabled automatically when multiple VPNs are bound to a single tunnel interface.
Answer: BD

2. Which two statements are true regarding the use of dialup VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. They are initiated only by the remote host PC.
B. They can only be connected to the trust zone on a ScreenOS device.
C. They are configured so that the first IKE message will always have the SA proposal list.
D. They can be used as an alternative to connect remote users when a ScreenOS device has reached the maximum number of LANtoLAN tunnels.
Answer: AC

3. Your ScreenOS device has come under a SYN flood attack. In the logs, which severity level would you search to see this event?
A. Alert
B. Critical
C. Warning
D. Emergency
Answer: D

4. Which command will show address translation for sessions that have ended?
A. snoop
B. get session
C. get log traffic
D. get dbuf stream
Answer: C

5.Which item in a virtual system is shared by default?
A. trust zone in the trustvr
B. trust zone in the untrustvr
C. untrust zone in the trustvr
D. untrust zone in the untrustvr
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com/jn0-531.html

6. What should you configure to insure an HA cable failure does not result in both devices attempting to become master?
A. failover count
B. secondary path
C. monitor threshold
D. heartbeat threshold
Answer: B

7. What will happen if you type the command unset protocol vrouter trustvr protocol ospf?
A. OSPF stops running, but the OSPF configuration is left intact.
B. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter only.
C. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from all interfaces in the vrouter.
D. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter and from all interfaces in the vrouter.
Answer: D

8. To which three ScreenOS components can a policybased routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer:ACD

9. Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

10. Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

http://www.test4actual.com

11. Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trustvr protocol pim
Answer: D

12. Click the Exhibit button.
Inthe exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

13. During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A. messages 1 & 2
B. messages 2 & 3
C. messages 3 & 4
D. messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

14. Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A. proxyid,
SA proposal list
B. IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C.hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D. SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

15. What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A. Phase 1 PFS
B. Phase 2 SHA
C. Phase 2 3DES
D. Phase 2 DH key exchange
Answer: D

http://www.test4actual.com/jn0-531.html

16. Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B. The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C. The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D. The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E. The proxyid is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

17. What must be configured differently for a routebased VPN and a policybased VPN?
A. proxyid
B. proposals
C. remote gateway type
D. binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

18. You have configured the following on your device.The VPN is not working properly. What is the problem?
A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

19. You create a policybased VPN, and select an address group for the source address.What will be the source component of the proxyid seen by the remote security gateway?
A. the default 0.0.0.0/0
B. the last member of the address group
C. the first member of the address group
D. the subnet that contains all addresses in the address group
Answer: A

20. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the routebased VPN on the SSG 5 needs to configured to allow access only from your PC 8 to Server G. The SSG 550 is configured with a policybased VPN from Server G to your PC’s host address.Assume the gateways are static.Which proxyid must be configured?
A. Local: 10.0.0.5/24Remote: 20.0.0.5/24
B. Local: 10.0.0.5/32Remote: 20.0.0.5/32
C. Local: 1.1.1.250/32Remote: 4.4.4.250/32
D. Local: 1.1.1.250/24Remote: 4.4.4.250/24
Answer: B

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/jn0-531.html
http://www.hp-exam.com

I have passed the Juniper Networks JN0-342 exam recently,if you are worried about it,maybe I can share some experience with you.A colleague of mine, who have got the Juniper Networks certification, recommend Test4actual to me, saying that without the help of test4actual, he couldn’t have passed the exam.
Any doubts about the products quality left? Try the Test4actual Juniper Networks JN0-342 exam free demo before buy!

1. Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A. 224.0.0.2
B. 224.0.0.5
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

2. What are three methods for managing a Juniper Enterprise Router? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. SDX
C. SAP
D. J-Web
E. J-Config
Answer: ABD

3. Which IGP should you use to achieve scalability in a large enterprise network using Juniper enterprise routers?
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
Answer: C

4. Which configuration statement allows local non-root users access to the router only when the RADIUS server is unreachable?
A. [edit]
system {
authentication-order radius;
}
B. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius password ];
}
C. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius if-authenticated ];
}
D. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius local ];
}
Answer: A

5. Which two statements about the Adaptive Services PIC are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Adaptive Services PIC supports the Layer 3 service package by default.
B. The Adaptive Services PIC is required when using the secure shell to access an M-series router.
C. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for the Layer 2 and Layer 3 service packages simultaneously.
D. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for either the Layer 2 or the Layer 3 service package but not both at the same time.
Answer: AD

http://www.test4actual.com/JN0-342.html

6. What are two benefits of MLPPP? (Choose two.)
A. Cost-efficient solution when incrementing bandwidth.
B. Provides for fail over when the primary link goes down.
C. Evenly distributes traffic over participating member links.
D. Guarantees that the link will remain up during failure scenarios.
Answer: AC

7. Which major J-Web menu should you use to upgrade the JUNOS software on the router?
A. Monitor
B. Manage
C. Diagnose
D. Configuration
Answer: B

8. How are multiple policies evaluated within the JUNOS software?
A. alphabetically
B. as an ordered list
C. in a round robin manner
D. numerically from lowest to highest
Answer: B

9. Which statement is true about accessing a Juniper enterprise router using a Web browser?
A. J-series routers are accessible by default.
B. M7i and M10i routers are accessible by default.
C. You need to install a license before accessing a J-series router.
D. You need to enable the HTTP service on M7i, M10i, and J-series routers before accessing them.
Answer: A

10. What are two ways to create a rescue configuration on a J-series router? (Choose two.)
A. Use the J-Web System > Rescue menu.
B. Use the J-Web Configuration > Rescue menu.
C. Issue the configure rescue save command.
D. Issue the request system configuration rescue save command.
Answer: BD

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/JN0-342.html
http://www.hp-exam.com

“Certification I “, also known as HP0-J22 exam, is a HP certification.

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 82 Q&A to your HP0-J22 exam preparation. In the HP0-J22 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Certification I helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

Exam Details
The Certification I exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate Certification I certification. The Certification I (HP0-J22) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO)

Free HP0-J22 Demo Download:
Part: A
1:
You want an HP product that allows you to present 4.8TB to an OpenVMS system and take up only 2U of rack space. Which HP StorageWorks product should you use?
A.HP StorageWorks MSA500
B.HP StorageWorks MSA70
C.HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc
D.HP StorageWorks MSA60

Answer: D

2:
When does the data become available to the application during the MSA2000 snapshot rollback process?
A.when the rollback process has completed
B.immediately
C.while the rollback process completes in the background
D.after a restart of the application

Answer: C

3:
You are attempting to restore a saved configuration file. You have selected Manage > Utilities > Configuration Utilities > Restore Config File inside HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management Utility. What do you select next?
A.Master Controller
B.IP Address option
C.Next
D.previously saved configuration file

Answer: B

4:
What are features of the MSA2000? (Select two.)
A.remote data replication
B.snapshots and clones
C.Fibre Channel backend bus
D.SAS backend bus
E.
three year warranty for SATA drives

Answer: B D

5:
Click the Task button. Match each customer requirement with the appropriate HP StorageWorks solution.

6:
What is an MSA2000 master volume?
A.a volume for fast data recovery
B.a database volume for user data
C.a volume for snapshot data
D.a source volume for snapshots

Answer: D

7:
What is required to automatically delete MSA2000 snapshots?
A.a successfully completed full backup
B.a scheduled snap delete job
C.a snap pool policy
D.a snapshot alive limit

Answer: C

8:
Which multi-path drivers are included in the MPIO driver package? (Select three.)
A.bus driver
B.port filter driver
C.Secure Path driver
D.system state driver
E.disk driver replacement
F.matrix storage manager driver

Answer: A B E

9:
After a power outage, an MSA2000 controller powers up while some member disks of a RAID set are still unavailable. Which disaster recovery function attempts to get the associated LUN online?
A.Refresh Disk Blocks
B.Dequarantine Virtual Disk
C.Trust Virtual Disk
D.Re-Initialize Disk Blocks

Answer: C

10:
What is an MSA2000 virtual disk?
A.a group of disk drives with a maximum capacity of 2TB
B.a logical unit created from a storage pool of contiguous blocks
C.a group of disk drives configured as any RAID set
D.a logical unit consisting of up to eight drives in a RAID 5 configuration

Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com

11:
What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains pre-allocated reserve space for snapshot data?
A.rollback pool
B.snap pool
C.master volume
D.target volume

Answer: B

12:
Which data are included when saving the configuration to a file? (Select three.)
A.virtual disk configurations
B.volume configurations
C.host port configurations
D.switch configurations
E.system configurations
F.disk configurations

Answer: C E F

13:
Your customer has a requirement for fiber-attached block level storage and remote data replication. Which HP StorageWorks product best meets this requirement?
A.HP StorageWorks MSA60
B.HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc
C.HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc with enhanced controllers
D.HP StorageWorks EVA4400

Answer: D

14:
Click the Task button. Match each MSA2000 RAID level with its description.

15:
In which Windows mode are the MPIO drivers implemented?
A.real
B.user
C.secured
D.kernel

Answer: D

16:
What is the default read-ahead cache policy of an MSA2000?
A.dynamic calculation of the optimum chunk size
B.one chunk for the first and one stripe for all subsequent sequential read operations
C.disabled read-ahead cache
D.64KB for all read operations

Answer: B

17:
Which form of snapshot creation is used in the MSA2000?
A.image copy
B.copy on write
C.copy after write
D.block mirror

Answer: B

18:
To which level of the storage configuration hierarchy do the read and write cache policies apply?
A.volume
B.physical disk
C.virtual disk
D.array

Answer: A

19:
What is the minimum port count on an HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN switch?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32

Answer: B

20:
Which MSA2000 feature disables cache mirroring in active-active mode and might improve the I/O performance?
A.super-sequential cache mode
B.write-through cache mode
C.independent cache performance mode
D.write-back cache mode

Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com/

http://www.test4actual.com/HP0-J22.html

http://www.hp-exam.com

Here are some practice about Juniper Networks JN0-342 exam which are latest released by Test4actual,it provides a lot of IT certification exams,I hope they will help you pass your test.

1. Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A. 224.0.0.2
B. 224.0.0.5
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

2. What are three methods for managing a Juniper Enterprise Router? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. SDX
C. SAP
D. J-Web
E. J-Config
Answer: ABD

3. Which IGP should you use to achieve scalability in a large enterprise network using Juniper enterprise
routers?
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
Answer: C

4. Which configuration statement allows local non-root users access to the router only when the RADIUS server is unreachable?
A. [edit]
system {
authentication-order radius;
}
B. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius password ];
}
C. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius if-authenticated ];
}
D. [edit]
system {
authentication-order [ radius local ];
}
Answer: A

5. Which two statements about the Adaptive Services PIC are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Adaptive Services PIC supports the Layer 3 service package by default.
B. The Adaptive Services PIC is required when using the secure shell to access an M-series router.
C. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for the Layer 2 and Layer 3 service packages simultaneously.
D. The Adaptive Services PIC can be configured for either the Layer 2 or the Layer 3 service package but not both at the same time.
Answer: AD

6. What are two benefits of MLPPP? (Choose two.)
A. Cost-efficient solution when incrementing bandwidth.
B. Provides for fail over when the primary link goes down.
C. Evenly distributes traffic over participating member links.
D. Guarantees that the link will remain up during failure scenarios.
Answer: AC

7. Which major J-Web menu should you use to upgrade the JUNOS software on the router?
A. Monitor
B. Manage
C. Diagnose
D. Configuration
Answer: B

8. How are multiple policies evaluated within the JUNOS software?
A. alphabetically
B. as an ordered list
C. in a round robin manner
D. numerically from lowest to highest
Answer: B

9. Which statement is true about accessing a Juniper enterprise router using a Web browser?
A. J-series routers are accessible by default.
B. M7i and M10i routers are accessible by default.
C. You need to install a license before accessing a J-series router.
D. You need to enable the HTTP service on M7i, M10i, and J-series routers before accessing them.
Answer: A

10. What are two ways to create a rescue configuration on a J-series router? (Choose two.)
A. Use the J-Web System > Rescue menu.
B. Use the J-Web Configuration > Rescue menu.
C. Issue the configure rescue save command.
D. Issue the request system configuration rescue save command.
Answer: BD

http://www.test4actual.com/JN0-342.html

11. Which CLI command allows you to determine how many licenses are currently used on the router and are further needed by the router?
A. show system license key
B. show system license usage
C. show system license total
D. show system license profile
Answer: B

12. Which logical unit number must be configured on an interface using PPP encapsulation?
A. unit 0
B. unit 1
C. unit 100
D. unit 255
Answer: A

13. The J-Web application can install the JUNOS software from which two locations? (Choose two.)
A. SDX
B. local PC
C. BSD shell
D. remote host
Answer: BD

14. What is the default route preference for static routes?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 170
Answer: B

15. Which two statements about the track configuration option are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The track option monitors interfaces as defined by the user.
B. The track option monitors all interfaces participating in VRRP.
C. The track option allows for a reduction of the priority value if the monitored interface goes down.
D. The track option causes syslog entries to be written in the messages log file, if the monitored interface goes down.
Answer: AC

16. Which configuration example represents a services interface configured for a MLPPP bundle on a J-series router?
A. ml-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.18.37.5/30;
}
B. lsq-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.18.37.5/30;
}
C. sp-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.18.37.5/30;
}
D. ls-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 172.18.37.5/30;
}
Answer: D

17. What happens when a route does not match any user configured policies?
A. The route is rejected.
B. The route is accepted.
C. The route is given a lower priority.
D. The route is sent to the default policy.
Answer: D

18. Which three steps are required when configuring NAT? (Choose three.)
A. Define a rule-set.
B. Define a NAT rule.
C. Create a NAT pool.
D. Define services interface.
E. Configure an application-set.
Answer: BCD

19. Which three initial configuration methods are supported on J-series routers? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. J-Web
C. JUNOScope
D. autoinstallation
E. PCMCIA flash card
Answer: ABD

20. What is a correct configuration using autoinstallation?
A. [edit system autoinstallation]
user@host# show
interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
rarp;
}
configuration-servers {
tftp://tftpconfig.sp.com/config.conf;
}
B. [edit system autoinstallation]
user@host# show
interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
rarp;
}
bootp-servers {
10.34.1.1;
}
C. [edit system autoinstallation]
user@host# show
configuration-servers {
tftp://tftpconfig.sp.com/config.conf;
interfaces ge-0/0/0 slarp;
}
D. [edit system autoinstallation]
user@host# show
interfaces {
ge-0/0/0 {
dhcp;
}
configuration-servers {
tftp://tftpconfig.sp.com/config.conf;

}
Answer: A

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/JN0-342.html
http://www.hp-exam.com

“Certification I “, also known as HP0-S17 exam, is a HP certification.

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 147 Q&A to your HP0-S17 exam preparation. In the HP0-S17 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Certification I helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

Free HP0-S17 Demo Download
1. You are administrating several c-Class enclosures and are looking for a unified authentication system for all iLO cards and Onboard Administrator modules.
What is the proper solution?
A. HP Protect Tools
B. Credential Manager
C. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Answer: D
2. Which features does Virtual Connect Ethernet module (VC-Enet) provide in a network environment? (Select two.)
A. VC-Enet can stack across four enclosures in a rack.
B. VC-Enet appears as an HP ProCurve device to other network devices.
C. VC-Enet will not add any new switches for the network administrator to manage.
D. VC-Enet domains can be created directly using the Onboard Administrator console.
Answer: AC
3. You are replacing one of your redundant GbE2c interconnect switch modules in your c7000 Enclosure. What must you be aware of when you install a replacement GbE2C switch with default settings into the enclosure?
A. Crosslink ports are disabled and redundancy is lost between switches.
B. Crosslink ports are enabled and will cause a loop in your switch topology.
C. Uplink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
D. Downlink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
Answer: A
4. After replacing a failed drive in a server blade, your customer complains about long logical drive time recovery. What can you do to reduce recovery time?
A. Migrate the logical drive to RAID 6.
B. Install MPIO software on the server blade.
C. Set the rebuild priority to high on the controller.
D. Enable the Tagged Command Queuing (TCQ) feature on the hard drive.
Answer: C
5. An administrator needs to monitor performance of every drive connected to the Smart Array controller. Each drive is configured as a single logical drive.
Which tool can be used?
A. Insight Diagnostic
B. Radia Performance Manager
C. Performance Management Pack
D. Windows Server Performance Monitor
Answer: C
6. A customer has a Virtual Connect managed enclosure and needs to move one of the blades to a non-virtual connect enclosure.
What should be done so that duplicate MAC addresses and WWNs do not appear in the datacenter due to server blade deployment?
A. Enable the Reset to factory default?switch on the blade system board.
B. Run the erase utility on the blade before plugging the server to the network.
C. First delete all MAC and WWNs configurations while the server is in the VC managed enclosure and then move the server to the non-VC managed enclosure.
D. MAC addresses and WWNs are automatically returned to factory defaults when the server is moved to the non-Virtual connect enclosure so no duplicate MAC addresses or WWNs appear.
Answer: D
7. A BladeSystem enclosure is managed by one Onboard Administrator that failed. Which functionality is still available? (Select two.)
A. iLO 2 is accessible.
B. All fans are up and running.
C. Server blades can access the SAN.
D. New server blades can be added and powered up.
E. New interconnect devices can be added and powered up.
Answer: BC
8. Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A. verification of operation
B. confirmation of software revisions
C. comprehensive porting and migration
D. systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E. proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
Answer: AB
9. Which industry standard processor options are supported in the HP BL460c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A. Dual-Core Intel Xeon
B. Quad-Core Intel Xeon
C. Dual-Core Intel Itanium2
D. Dual-Core AMD Opteron
E. Quad-Core AMD Opteron
Answer: AB
10. Which industry standard protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. XML
B. TFTP
C. iSCSI
D. WBEM
E. NetBEUI
Answer: AD

http://www.test4actual.com
11. Which industry standard memory technologies are supported in a BL465c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A. memory sparing
B. memory mirroring
C. memory interleaving
D. ECC and Advanced ECC
E. 833MHz maximum speed DIMMs
Answer: CD
12. Which industry standard memory technology can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A. Advanced ECC
B. mirrored memory
C. registered DIMMs
D. online spare memory
E. interleaved memory support
Answer: BD
13. Which industry standard technologies are compatible with the SB600c AiO Storage Blade? (Select two.)
A. ATA
B. SAS
C. SCSI
D. iSCSI
E. SATA
Answer: BD
14. The Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module uses which type of Port ID Virtualization protocol to aggregate multiple Fibre Channel HBAs over a smaller number of physical uplinks?
A. E_Port
B. F_Port
C. L_Port
D. N_Port
Answer: D
15. Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A. service planning interview
B. network device configuration
C. comprehensive porting and migration
D. systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E. proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
Answer: AB
16. What is an advantage of a c7000 Enclosure compared to a c3000 Enclosure in an enterprise environment?
A. N+N redundancy in the power subsystem
B. Virtual Connect and storage blade support
C. interconnect redundancy for integrated NICs
D. application of Onboard Administrator advanced license
Answer: C
17. Your customer has a c7000 Enclosure and two power supplies installed in bays 1 and 2. They are switching from single-phase power to a three-phase power subsystem with full redundancy.
Which action is necessary to make this configuration work and be supported?
A. Install 4 additional power supplies.
B. Move the power supplies to bays 1 and 4.
C. Turn off the Dynamic Power Saver feature.
D. Enable three-phase power using the Onboard Administrator.
Answer: A
18. Your customer wants to replace an existing c3000 Enclosure with a c7000 Enclosure. Which components from the c3000 Enclosure can be reused in the c7000 Enclosure? (Select three.)
A. fans
B. power supplies
C. interconnect modules
D. server and storage blades
E. Onboard Administrator module
Answer: ACD
19. A customer that usually works with a c3000 Enclosure needs to use the external DVD drive on a c7000 Enclosure and connect the drive to all servers in the c7000 Enclosure.
How can the external DVD drive on the c7000 Enclosure be accessed?
A. Use the DVD drive integrated in the c7000 Enclosure.
B. Use the DVD drive connected to the downlink port of the c7000 Enclosure.
C. Use the DVD drive connected to the USB port on an Onboard Administrator module.
D. Use the DVD drive attached through the serial/USB/video cable attached to any server blade.
Answer: C
20. Which ProLiant Essentials Value Pack is an integrated power monitoring and management application that provides centralized monitoring and control of datacenter power consumption and thermal output?
A. Insight Power Manager
B. HP Rack and Power Manager
C. Performance Management Pack
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
Answer: A

http://www.test4actual.com

http://www.test4actual.com/HP0-S17.html

http://www.test580.com

“JNCIA “, also known as JN0-341 exam, is a Juniper Networks certification.
Exam Details
The JNCIA exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Juniper Networks Certified Network Associate JNCIA certification. The JNCIA (JN0-341) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Juniper Networks Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Juniper Networks Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Juniper Networks networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

The latest exams are provided by Test4actual,hope to help you!
1.Which command copies the factorydefault files to your backup media?
A.request system snapshot rescue
B.request system snapshot factory
C.request system snapshot default
D.request system snapshot asprimary
Correct:B

2.What are two methods of accessing a Juniper enterprise router? (Choose two)
A.RSH
B.HTTPS
C.console
D.JConfig
Correct:B C

3.What is the default route preference for static routes?
A.0
B.5
C.10
D.170
Correct:B

4.What is shown by the command show interfaces extensive fe0/0/0 but not shown by the command show interface detail fe0/0/0?
A.input error counter
B.interface MTU size
C.input packets counter
D.the IP address on logical interface fe0/
0/0.0
Correct:A

5.What does the number one (1) represent for interface fe0/0/1?
A.port number
B.PCI slot number
C.channel number
D.virtual PIC number
Correct:A

http://www.test4actual.com/Jn0-341.html

6.What are two functions of the Intel IXP processors? (Choose two.)
A.keepalives
B.routelookup
C.CRC validation
D.Layer 2 decapsulation
Correct:A C

7.Which CLI command will ping destination 10.0.29.1 ten times and display the incoming interface of the received packet?
A.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 detail
B.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 detail
C.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
D.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
Correct: A

8.Which JWeb menu displays the users currently logged into the CLI?
A.Monitor > Users
B.Manage > Users
C.Monitor > System
D.Manage > System
Correct:C

9.Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A.224.0.0.2
B.224.0.0.5
C.224.0.0.9
D.255.255.255.255
Correct:C

10.Which two statements regarding system logging on a Juniper enterprise router are correct?(Choose two.)
A.The system log has a proprietary format.
B.System logs must be sent to a remote device.
C.New system logs can be created and archived.
D.Most software processes create their own logs.
Correct:C D

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/Jn0-341.html
http://www.hp-exam.com

“E-Commerce Architect “, also known as EC0-479 exam, is a EC-COUNCIL certification.
Preparing for the EC0-479 exam? Searching EC0-479 Test Questions, EC0-479 Practice Exam, EC0-479 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 100 Q&A to your EC0-479 exam preparation. In the EC0-479 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in E-Commerce Architect helping to ready you for your successful EC-COUNCIL Certification.

Free EC0-479 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for E-Commerce Architect EC0-479 exam (EC-Council Certified Security Analyst(ECSA)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

FREE DEMO:
1. When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS
Answer: B
2. Simon is a former employee of Trinitron XML Inc. He feels he was wrongly terminated and wants to hack into his former company’s network. Since Simon remembers some of the server names, he attempts to run the axfr and ixfr commands using DIG. What is Simon trying to accomplish here?
A. Send DOS commands to crash the DNS servers
B. Perform DNS poisoning
C. Perform a zone transfer
D. Enumerate all the users in the domain
Answer: C
3. What will the following command produce on a website login page? SELECT email, passwd, login_id, full_name FROM members WHERE email = ’someone@somehwere.com’; DROP TABLE members; –’
A. Deletes the entire members table
B. Inserts the Error! Reference source not found. email address into the members table
C. Retrieves the password for the first user in the members table
D. This command will not produce anything since the syntax is incorrect
Answer: A
4. You setup SNMP in multiple offices of your company. Your SNMP software manager is not receiving data from other offices like it is for your main office. You suspect that firewall changes are to blame. What ports should you open for SNMP to work through Firewalls (Select 2)
A. 162
B. 161
C. 163
D. 160
Answer: AB
5. You are carrying out the last round of testing for your new website before it goes live. The website has many dynamic pages and connects to a SQL backend that accesses your product inventory in a database. You come across a web security site that recommends inputting the following code into a search field on web pages to check for vulnerabilities: When you type this and click on search, you receive a pop-up window that says: “This is a test.” What is the result of this test?
A. Your website is vulnerable to CSS
B. Your website is not vulnerable
C. Your website is vulnerable to SQL injection
D. Your website is vulnerable to web bugs
Answer: A
6. If an attacker’s computer sends an IPID of 31400 to a zombie computer on an open port in IDLE scanning, what will be the response?
A. The zombie will not send a response
B. 31402
C. 31399
D. 31401
Answer: D
7. Michael works for Kimball Construction Company as senior security analyst. As part of yearly security audit, Michael scans his network for vulnerabilities. Using Nmap, Michael conducts XMAS scan and most of the ports scanned do not give a response. In what state are these ports?
A. Closed
B. Open
C. Stealth
D. Filtered
Answer: B
8. You are assisting a Department of Defense contract company to become compliant with the stringent security policies set by the DoD. One such strict rule is that firewalls must only allow incoming connections that were first initiated by internal computers. What type of firewall must you implement to abide by this policy?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Circuit-level proxy firewall
C. Application-level proxy firewall
D. Statefull firewall
Answer: D
9. Jessica works as systems administrator for a large electronics firm. She wants to scan her network quickly to detect live hosts by using ICMP ECHO Requests. What type of scan is Jessica going to perform?
A. Tracert
B. Smurf scan
C. Ping trace
D. ICMP ping sweep
Answer: D
10. You work as an IT security auditor hired by a law firm in Boston to test whether you can gain access to sensitive information about the company clients. You have rummaged through their trash and found very little information. You do not want to set off any alarms on their network, so you plan on performing passive footprinting against their Web servers. What tool should you use?
A. Ping sweep
B. Nmap
C. Netcraft
D. Dig
Answer: C

http://WWW.Test4actual.com

11. You are a security analyst performing a penetration tests for a company in the Midwest. After some initial reconnaissance, you discover the IP addresses of some Cisco routers used by the company. You type in the following URL that includes the IP address of one of the routers: http://172.168.4.131/level/99/exec/show/config After typing in this URL, you are presented with the entire configuration file for that router. What have you discovered?
A. HTTP Configuration Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability
B. HTML Configuration Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability
C. Cisco IOS Arbitrary Administrative Access Online Vulnerability
D. URL Obfuscation Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability
Answer: A
12. What is the following command trying to accomplish? C:\> nmap -sU -p445 192.168.0.0/24
A. Verify that UDP port 445 is open for the 192.168.0.0 network
B. Verify that TCP port 445 is open for the 192.168.0.0 network
C. Verify that NETBIOS is running for the 192.168.0.0 network
D. Verify that UDP port 445 is closed for the 192.168.0.0 network
Answer: A
13. You are the network administrator for a small bank in Dallas, Texas. To ensure network security, you enact a security policy that requires all users to have 14 character passwords. After giving your users 2 weeks notice, you change the Group Policy to force 14 character passwords. A week later you dump the SAM database from the standalone server and run a password-cracking tool against it. Over 99% of the passwords are broken within an hour. Why were these passwords cracked so quickly?
A. Passwords of 14 characters or less are broken up into two 7-character hashes
B. A password Group Policy change takes at least 3 weeks to completely replicate throughout a network
C. Networks using Active Directory never use SAM databases so the SAM database pulled was empty
D. The passwords that were cracked are local accounts on the Domain Controller
Answer: A
14. An “idle” system is also referred to as what?
A. PC not connected to the Internet
B. Zombie
C. PC not being used
D. Bot
Answer: B
15. Larry is an IT consultant who works for corporations and government agencies. Larry plans on shutting down the city’s network using BGP devices and ombies? What type of Penetration Testing is Larry planning to carry out?
A. Router Penetration Testing
B. DoS Penetration Testing
C. Firewall Penetration Testing
D. Internal Penetration Testing
Answer: B
16. Click on the Exhibit Button To test your website for vulnerabilities, you type in a quotation mark (? for the username field. After you click Ok, you receive the following error message window: What can you infer from this error window?

A. SQL injection is possible
B. SQL injection is not possible
C. The quotation mark (? is a valid username
D. The user for line 3306 in the SQL database has a weak password
Answer: A
17. John and Hillary works at the same department in the company. John wants to find out Hillary’s network password so he can take a look at her documents on the file server. He enables Lophtcrack program to sniffing mode. John sends Hillary an email with a link to Error! Reference source not found. What information will he be able to gather from this?
A. Hillary network username and password hash
B. The SID of Hillary network account
C. The SAM file from Hillary computer
D. The network shares that Hillary has permissions
Answer: A
18. Bill is the accounting manager for Grummon and Sons LLC in Chicago. On a regular basis, he needs to send PDF documents containing sensitive information through E-mail to his customers. Bill protects the PDF documents with a password and sends them to their intended recipients. Why PDF passwords do not offer maximum protection?
A. PDF passwords can easily be cracked by software brute force tools
B. PDF passwords are converted to clear text when sent through E-mail
C. PDF passwords are not considered safe by Sarbanes-Oxley
D. When sent through E-mail, PDF passwords are stripped from the document completely
Answer: A
19. Meyer Electronics Systems just recently had a number of laptops stolen out of their office. On these laptops contained sensitive corporate information regarding patents and company strategies. A month after the laptops were stolen, a competing company was found to have just developed products that almost exactly duplicated products that Meyer produces. What could have prevented this information from being stolen from the laptops?
A. EFS Encryption
B. DFS Encryption
C. IPS Encryption
D. SDW Encryption
Answer: A
20. Kimberly is studying to be an IT security analyst at a vocational school in her town. The school offers many different programming as well as networking languages. What networking protocol language should she learn that routers utilize?
A. ATM
B. UDP
C. BPG
D. OSPF
Answer: D
http://WWW.Test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/EC0-479.html
http://www.oracle-exam.com

Certification III “, also known as HP0-M15 exam, is a HP certification.

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 164 Q&A to your HP0-M15 exam preparation. In the HP0-M15 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Certification III helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

Free HP0-M15 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Certification III HP0-M15 exam (HP Quality Center 9.2 Software). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Certification III exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate Certification III certification.

1. What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
Answer: D

2. Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
A. test cases
B. repository
C. load test
D. defects
Answer: B

3. What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
Answer: CE

4. What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
Answer: BC

5. Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
Answer: D

6. When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested. When writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select two.)
A. specify all actual results
B. use parameters in the step names
C. specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. use the numbering system for the step names
E. use consistent terminology throughout the test
Answer: CE

7. Where can you link tests to requirements?
A. from the Test Lab module
B. from the Requirements module
C. on the test details page (Test Plan)
D. on the attachments page (Test Plan)
Answer: B

8. When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the parameters?
A. values are assigned from within the calling test
B. values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. values are assigned during test design or execution
D. values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
Answer: C

9. What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
A. make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject path
D. select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion
Answer: C

10. How is a test configured as a template test?
A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com

11. Click the Exhibit button.
What does the icon in the exhibit indicate in the Test Plan module, under the Test Script tab?

A. there is a test script
B. there is not a test script
C. there is a manual test case
D. the test script has changed
Answer: A

12. While designing the test plan tree, you accidentally delete a folder that contained some tests that you need. Can you recover the tests?
A. no, once a test is deleted, it is gone
B. yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
C. yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
D. no, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests
Answer: C

13. When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the tests are accurate and traceable. What are two other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.
A. simple
B. consistent
C. repeatable
D. convertible
E. automation
F. appropriate
Answer: BF

14. What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three
A. batch-test
B. vugen-test
C. lr-scenario
D. system-test
E. interface-test
F. wr-automated test
Answer: CDF

15. In order to reuse a test across other tests, must the reused test be a template test?
A. yes, only template tests are reusable
B. no, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
C. yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
D. no, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused
Answer: D

16. What does a live analysis graph illustrate in a visual overview?
A. all the tests in the Test Plan
B. all the cycles or releases the test is linked to
C. all the requirements linked to the specified test
D. all the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan
Answer: D

17. How can you create a test plan tree?
A. convert releases to tests
B. define test folders and tests manually
C. save automated tests in Quality Center
D. define test names for each test needed
Answer: B

18. Can you change the values of a called test’s parameters?
A. no, values are assigned at run time
B. yes, if the called test is a template test
C. no, you must delete the called test and call it again
D. yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters
Answer: D

19. When you generate an Excel report, why is it an advantage to use parameters?
A. enables the report to be saved
B. enables the user to name the report
C. enables the report to be used across projects
D. enables the report to be used for different purposes
Answer: D

20. Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. defects data
B. test set data
C. test plan data
D. releases data
E. test Instance data
F. requirements data
Answer: ACF

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/HP0-M15.html
http://blog.test4actual.com

Some practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.
1. Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

2. A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

3. By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

4. During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

5. Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

http://www.test4actual.com/JN0-201.html

6. What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

7. If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

8. Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

9. What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

10. Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

Test4actual provides the latest IT exams,more juniper networks jn0-201 exam you can visit http://www.test4actual.com/JN0-201.html

http://www.hp-exam.com

Are you worried about XML I10-002 exam?Maybe Test4actual will help you!
Test4actual latest releases XML I10-002 exam and with the help of Test4actual more and more people have passed the exam.
Test4actual free I10-002 exam demo domnload
Hope to help you!

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/I10-002.html
http://www.hp-exam.com

“Certification I “, also known as HP0-J24 exam, is a HP certification.
Preparing for the HP0-J24 exam? Searching HP0-J24 Test Questions, HP0-J24 Practice Exam, HP0-J24 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 60 Q&A to your HP0-J24 exam preparation. In the HP0-J24 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Certification I helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

Exam Details
The Certification I (HP0-J24) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO) course.

Free HP0-J24 DEMO:
1.Given the following third-party copy sequence:
Step 1 Server initiates backup by sending list of blocks to be backed up to the third-party device.
Step 2 Third-party device issues commands to the external disk subsystem.
Step 3
Step 4External disk subsystem sends data to tape library.
Which action is taken in Step 3?
A.Fibre Channel loop performs LIP.
B.Server IP address is changed.
C.Snapshot is taken.
D.Server backup agent is stopped.
Answer: C

2.What is a benefit of a disk-to-disk-to-tape backup configuration in an Enterprise Backup Solution?
A.The backup data are copied to a host-managed, low-cost disk to facilitate restores and enable short term archival storage.
B.Because the speed of staging disks is much higher than the tape speed, the window for disk-to-disk-to-tape backup shrinks dramatically.
C.All file transfers are controlled by the storage system software, and transfer to tape occurs through servers that send the data.
D.The backup application backs up the primary disk data to the staging disk, allowing for quick restores of single files.
Answer: D

3.You are required to cascade 2 units of HP B-Series 8Gb/s SAN switches using a 50/125 micron LC-LC fiber optic cable. The remote SAN switch is connected to an MSL Tape Library. What is the maximum cable length possible?
A.21 meters
B.150 meters
C.300 meters
D.500 meters
Answer: B

4.Which HP StorageWorks systems can use zero downtime backup technology and remote replications solutions? (Select two.)
A.VLS Series
B.EML Series
C.XP Series
D.MSA2000 Series
E.EVA Series
Answer: CE

5.Which elements form the backup and restore basics? (Select four.)
A.backup strategies
B.tape rotation scheme
C.journal replication
D.agents selection
E.type of data to backup
F.remote replication
G.correct tape devices
Answer: ABEG

6.Which two-stage backup configuration would you recommend to SMB customers who want a solution that is easy to install and manage?
A.Mezzanine Backup Solution
B.VLS1000i with MSL2024 Tape Libraries
C.MSA2000fc with MSL2048 Tape Libraries
D.D2D Backup System
Answer: D

7.What are advantages of using HP StorageWorks D2D Backup Systems over traditional backup that uses tape media? (Select two.)
A.It provides data protection.
B.It is a scalable Enterprise SAN solution.
C.It enables non-disruptive scalability using Capacity on Demand.
D.It is the safest way to store data for the long term.
E.It provides online access to backup data.
Answer: AE

8.Given the following backup tape rotation scheme:
Incremental backup daily from Monday to Friday using 1 tape
Full backup every Saturday using 1 tape
Tape rotation rule: GFS scheme
Tape retention rule: Son tape overwrites weekly; Father tape only used every Saturday
A month is calculated as 5 Saturdays.
How many tapes are required to run one month of backups?
A.6
B.11
C.12
D.15
Answer: B

9.What is the benefit of having an SDLT tape drive that uses a linear recording technology where the tape media is moved past the stationary read/write heads?
A.Data stripes that are recorded in vertical format over constant tape media speed provide reliable recording.
B.Higher data density is recorded in the media in diagonal stripes format.
C.It is more reliable due to fewer moving parts and longer lifespan for the tape media.
D.A single media roller provides better tape tension during reading or writing.
Answer: C

10.Given a drive with the following features:
optical servo tracking
magneto-resistive cluster heads
fewer roller guides than previous generation drive
Which type of drive correctly matches the description?
A.AIT
B.DAT
C.SDLT
D.LTO
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com

11.What is the compressed capacity for Ultrium LTO-2?
A.100GB
B.200GB
C.400GB
D.800GB
E.1600GB
Answer: C

12.Click the Exhibit button.
Which blade slot in the blade enclosure shown in the exhibit can be used to connect an Ultrium 448c tape blade to the BL480c full-height blade?

A.2
B.9
C.8
D.10
Answer: B

13.Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of tape drive in the tape library uses the barcode label shown in the exhibit?

A.Ultrium 230
B.Ultrium 460
C.Ultrium 960
D.Ultrium 1840
Answer: B

14.Which function found in the HP VLS6000 Series synchronizes the physical cartridges with the matching virtual cartridges?
A.Echo Copy
B.Serverless Copy
C.Tape Copy
D.Echo Synch
Answer: A

15.In which VLS backup de-duplication process are differences identified at the byte level between object versions?
A.data grooming
B.space reclamation
C.data comparison
D.integrity check
Answer: C

16.You are using a backup to disk solution. Which patterns are typically used for read and write operations? (Select two.)
A.writes sequentially
B.writes randomly
C.reads sequentially
D.reads randomly
Answer: AC

17.What are possible reasons for a customer to migrate their HP StorageWorks MSL-based backup to the HP StorageWorks Virtual Library System? (Select two.)
A.provides full automation backup
B.decreases backup windows
C.reduces recovery time
D.lowers backup software costs
E.provides direct off-site vaulting capabilities
Answer: BC

18.What are characteristics of HP StorageWorks VLS6600, VLS9000 and VLS12000 EVA Gateway?
A.support hardware compression card
B.use HP ProLiant server technology RAID 5 data protection
C.support up to 10,000 slots and 32,000 cartridges
D.integrate easily into existing Ethernet networks using iSCSI connectivity
Answer: A

19.Which type of backup rule or setting resets the archive bit of a file after a successful backup?
A.image backup
B.incremental backup
C.full backup
D.decremental backup
Answer: B

20.Which component can bring the database back to its state at backup time even if the database file on tape is damaged or lost?
A.database transfer log file
B.database backup log file
C.database transaction log file
D.database access log file
Answer: C

http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/HP0-J24.html
http://www.test580.com

I have passed the Microsoft 70-620 exam recently,if you are worried about it,maybe I can share some experience with you.A colleague of mine, who have got the Microsoft certification, recommend Test4actual to me, saying that without the help of test4actual, he couldn’t have passed the exam.
Any doubts about the products quality left? Try the Test4actual Microsoft 70-620 exam free demo before buy!

1. You have a computer that runs Microsoft Windows XP. Your computer has the following hardware installed:
·CD-ROM drive
·1024 megabytes (MB) of RAM
·120 gigabytes (GB) hard disk drive that has 30 GB of free space
·DirectX 9–class graphics adapter that supports Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) and Pixel Shader 2.0
·128 megabytes (MB) of dedicated video memory
You want to install Windows Vista on your computer by using the retail installation media. You also want to enable Windows Aero.You need to ensure that your computer hardware supports the planned installation.
What should you do?
A. Install a network card.
B. Install a DVD-ROM drive.
C. Replace the hard disk drive.
D. Replace the graphics adapter.
Answer:B

2. You need to configure a new computer to dual-boot to the following operating systems:
·Microsoft Windows XP Professional
·Microsoft Windows Vista
Which two procedures should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Create two partitions. Install Windows XP Professional on the first partition. Boot the computer from the Windows Vista DVD-ROM. Install Windows Vista on the second partition.
B. Create two partitions. Install Windows Vista on the first partition. Boot from the Windows XP Professional installation CD-ROM. Install Windows XP Professional on the second partition.
C. Create one partition. Install Windows XP Professional on the partition. From Windows XP Professional launch the Windows Vista setup utility. Install Windows Vista in the same partition.
D. Create two partitions. Install Windows XP Professional on the first partition. From Windows XP Professional launch the Windows Vista setup utility. Install Windows Vista on the second partition.
Answer:AD

3. You perform a clean installation of Microsoft Windows Vista on the first partition. Then, you install Microsoft Windows XP Professional on the second partition of the same machine.You are able to log on to Windows XP Professional but do not have the option to boot to Windows Vista.
You need to be able to dual boot the computer.
What should you do?
A. Run the bootcfg.exe application with the /fastdetect option.
B. Perform a clean installation of Windows Vista on the first partition.
C. Run the msconfig.exe application and change the order of the operating systems in the boot.ini file.
D. Edit the boot.ini file. Add the following line:Multi(0)Disk(0)Rdisk(0)Partition(1)\Microsoft Windows
Answer:B

4. Your computer runs Microsoft Windows 2000 with Service Pack 3.You need to upgrade your computer to Microsoft Windows Vista. You must achieve this goal without reinstalling the applications.What should you do?
A. First upgrade the computer to Microsoft Windows XP Professional, and then upgrade to Windows Vista.
B. Install Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional Service Pack 4 on the computer. Start a Windows Vista upgrade from an installation DVD.
C. Install Windows Vista into a separate partition. Use the Windows Easy Transfer wizard to upgrade your settings to the Windows Vista operating system.
D. Copy your user profile to a removable media. Perform a clean installation of Windows Vista. Copy your user profile to the C:\Users directory.
Answer:A

5. You have a computer that runs Microsoft Windows XP. The computer has a custom application installed.You plan to upgrade the Windows XP computer to Windows Vista.You need to identify whether User Account Control (UAC) will allow the custom application to run without requiring elevated privileges.
What should you do?
A. Insert the Windows Vista installation media and run mighost.exe.
B. Insert the Windows Vista installation media and run setup.exe /unattended:unattend.xml.
C. Install Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit 5.0 and run the Setup Analysis Tool.
D. Install Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit 5.0 and run the Standard User Analyzer.
Answer: D

http://www.test4actual.com

http://www.test4actual.com/70-620.html

http://www.hp-exam.com