“CCNP CCDP “, also known as 642-891 exam, is a Cisco certification.
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Exam Details
The CCNP CCDP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP CCDP certification. The CCNP CCDP (642-891) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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“APE for Validating Knowledge “, also known as 646-228 exam, is a Cisco certification.
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Exam Details
The APE for Validating Knowledge exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate APE for Validating Knowledge certification. The APE for Validating Knowledge (646-228) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

FREE DEMO:
1.
The staff training template is one of the templates and/or tools identified as essential for the informal
advanced training for administration and operations activity during the implement phase. What is the other
resource that is used to accomplish this activity?
A. Lessons Learned template
B. IPC Project Plan
C. Phone Deployment Kit
D. System Requirements Validation Report
E. As Built Documentation
Answer: E
2. Which template is used to define the specifics of a flash or phased implementation strategy?
A. Business Requirements Document
B. Network Implementation Plan
C. High Level Design
D. IPC Project Plan
E. Optimization Report
F. Installation Guide
Answer: B
3. In the optimize phase, the call processing assessment activity contains the establish call volume
baselining task. Which template or tool documents the call volumes?
A. Bridge Traffic Analyzer
B. Microsoft Performance and Event Monitor
C. Operational Assessment Checklist
D. Continuous Improvement Plan
E. CDR Analysis and Reporting Tool
Answer: E
4. Which two are phases of a project life cycle? (Choose two.)
Test4actual Information Co., Ltd.All rights reserved.
3
A.
Plan
B. Business Requirements Definition
C. Network Readiness Assessment
D. Operational Readiness Assessment
E. Design
Answer: AE
5. Within the prepare phase, which two tasks are required to begin the prepare for business requirements
workshop activity? (Choose two.)
A. Document UserLevel
Functionality Requirements
B. Document Vertical Business Initiatives Requirements
C. Identify key stakeholders for the Business Requirements Development Workshop
D. Conduct a Solution Value Assessment
E. Send Invitations
F. Document Corporate Business Initiatives Requirements
Answer: CE

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“Cisco Others Certification “, also known as 646-222 exam, is a cisco, certification.
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With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 46 Q&A to your 646-222 exam preparation. In the 646-222 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Cisco Others Certification helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

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Exam Details
The Cisco Others Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Cisco Others Certification certification. The Cisco Others Certification (646-222) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

FREE DEMO:
1.An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IPNCommunications solution. This customer manages a large enterprise campus and three smallNbranch offices. Which Cisco CallManager Express feature should the account manager discuss with this customer?
A.integrated IP telephony services
B.robust PSTN interfaces
C.interoperability between Cisco CallManager and Cisco CallManager Express
D.remote maintenance
Correct:C

2.Cisco Unity Express adds which three features to the Cisco IP Communications Express
solution? (Choose three.)
A.data encryption
B.auto attendant
C.voice mail
D.call processing
E.group messaging
F.call routing
Correct:B C F

3.A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France,and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating costeffective voice mail and auto attendant,and has asked for your recommendation. What application would best meet the needs of the customer?
A.Cisco Unity Express
B.Cisco Unity
C.customized XML applications
D.Cisco CallManager
Correct:A

4.You require an easytouse,webenabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.
Which tool should you use?
A.Cisco ROI analysis
B.Cisco CNIC
C.business case from the industry of the prospect
D.customized hurdle rate analysis
Correct:B

5.The operations manager of a potential customer is concerned about implementing a VoIP
solution because of the possibility of interoperability issues with existing equipment. Which
differentiator would be most appropriate to position a Cisco IP Communications solution against
competitors?
A.An IPenabled PBX does not offer “five nines” availability. A Cisco IP Communications solution must integrate with existing legacy equipment that has 99.999 percent availability.
B.A Cisco IP Communications solution offers investment protection for a large installed base, as well as
retention of legacy equipment.
C.Proprietary software and IP phones are often used to enable an existing PBX system for IPbased
communications, locking the customer into using specific products indefinitely. With a Cisco solution,
PBXenabled devices can be used on the network.
D.Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure the tight
integration of all equipment and applications, enabling customers to migrate slowly to complete
convergence and retain legacy equipment and existing applications.
Correct:D

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“Sales Expert “, also known as 646-203 exam, is a Cisco certification.
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Exam Details
The Sales Expert exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Sales Expert certification. The Sales Expert (646-203) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-242 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-242) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

FREE DEMO:
1.Evaluate this PeopleCode snippet.
Local Array of Number &MyArray;
Local Any &Len, &Result;
&MyArray = CreateArray(3);
&MyArray[1] = 100;
&MyArray[2] = 200;
&MyArray[3] = 300;
&Result = &MyArray.POP();
&Len = &MyArray.LEN;
&End = &MyArray[&Len];
What are the correct values for &Result and &End?
A. &Result is 300
&End is 200
B. &Result is 300
&End is Null
C. &Result is 300
&End is 300
D. &Result is Null
&End is 300
E. &Result is 100
&End is 300
Answer: A

2. Here is a snippet of PeopleCode that uses the Fetch method of the SQL class.
&SQL = CreateSQL(”Select EFFORT_AMT from PS_PSU_TASK_EFFORT where TASK= :1″,
PSU_TASK_TBL.TASK);
&Var1 = &SQL.Fetch(&Var2);
Select the two correct statements. (Choose two.)
A. &Var2 specifies which row to fetch.
B.&Var2 specifies which field to fetch.
C. &Var1 is populated with TRUE if a row is fetched.
D. &Var1 is populated with the number of rows returned.
E. &Var2 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the row fetched.
F. &Var1 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the row fetched.
G. &Var1 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the first row returned.
Answer: CE

3. The Customer Orders page uses data from the ITEM table to perform price calculations. You decide to
write a PeopleCode program to create a standalone
rowset that will load data from the ITEM table into
the data buffer. Select three PeopleCode statements that can be used with standalone
rowsets. (Choose
three.)
A. &RS_Item = GetRowSet(SCROLL.ITEM);
B. &RS_Item = CreateRowSet(RECORD.ITEM);
C. &Price = &RS_Item(&i).ITEM.PRICE.Value;
D. &RS_Item.Select(”Where ITEM = :1″, CUST_ORDER.ITEM);
E. &RS_Item.Fill(”Where CUST_TYPE = :1″, CUST_ORDER.TYPE);
F. &RS_Item = ScrollSelect(1,Scroll.ITEM, Record.ITEM, (”Where CUST_TYPE = :1″, CUST_ORDER.
CUST_TYPE);
Answer: BCE

4. The Get Student Enrollments page uses a PeopleCode program to select and display rows based on
user input. When the user clicks Refresh, FieldChange PeopleCode populates a standalone
rowset using
a Select method. When you test the program, the new rows are appended to the previous rows instead of
replacing them. How do you fix this problem?
A. Use a work scroll instead of a standalone
rowset.
B. Add &Rowset.Flush(); after the Select method.
C. Use an Update method instead of a Select method.
D. Add &Rowset.Flush(); before the Select method.
E. Add &Rowset.Refresh (); after the Select method.
F. Add &Rowset.Refresh(); before the Select method.
Answer: D

5. Examine the join in this Select statement:
SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE A.TASK = B.TASK
AND A.RESOURCE = B.RESOURCE
Select the equivalent Select statement.
A. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE %Join(A.TASK, B.RESOURCE)
B. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE
%Common(PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
C. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM %Common(KEYS, PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
D. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE %Join(COMMON_KEYS, TASK A, EFFORT_AMT B)
E. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM %Join(COMMON_KEYS, PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
Answer: E

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Here are some practice about Oracle 1z0-218which are latest released by Test4actual,it provides a lot of IT certification exams,I hope they will help you pass your test.

1. Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common?
A. Salary Plan
B. Work Period
C. Tax Location
D. Standard Hours
E. Establishment ID
Answer:A

2. Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system? (Choose three.)
A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information.
C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a high-level key called a SetID.
D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster search results on employee data.
F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when large portions of data are the same for various business units.
Answer:ACF

3. On the Job Data Work Location tab for a new hire, Company is a required field.
You can default Company from the _____ table.
A. Location
B. Job Code
C. Position Data
D. Business Unit
E. Holiday Schedule
Answer: C

4. Your client is implementing PeopleSoft HRMS system with Payroll Interface. The client is to start configuring Pay Group table.
What table value should exist in the system before configuring Pay Groups?
A. Location
B. Company
C. Salary Plan
D. Salary Step
E. Salary Grade
F. Additional Pay
Answer: B

5. Which PeopleSoft table do you use to identify a group of employees who share common pay characteristics?
A. Job Code Table
B. Company Table
C. Pay Group Table
D. Salary Plan Table
E. Salary Grade Tables
F. Comp Rate Code Table
Answer: C

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6. You are at your client site working on PeopleSoft HRMS implementation. One of your tasks is to add systemwide defaults in order to save time when a user is entering information in transaction tables.Identify which field is NOT a default option in the Org Default by Permission List component.
A. SetID
B. Country
C. Company
D. To Currency
E. Business Unit
F. Compensation Frequency
Answer: F

7. Your organization has decided to use a department security tree for Row-Level security in PeopleSoft HRMS system.
You decided to use the XYZ permission list to secure data using the Security by Department Tree component.
Which step do you need to perform to ensure that Row-Level security is enforced?
A. Add the XYZ permission list to User Profile.
B. Add the XYZ permission list to Security Set.
C. Add the XYZ permission list to Tree Manager.
D. Add the XYZ permission list to Configuration Manager.
E. Add the XYZ permission list to a role and then assign that role to a user.
Answer:A

8. Using a Permission List associated with a user and identifying security sets and access types in the Security by Permission List component of PeopleSoft are known as _____.
A. Role-based data permission security
B. Tree-based data permission security
C. Group-based data permission security
D. Country-based data permission security
E. PeopleCode-based data permission security
Answer:A

9. Your organization has decided to implement row-level security. You suggested securing data by associating the company with people having jobs. This method of securing data is known as _____.
A. Access Type / Role
B. Permission List / Role
C. Security set / Access Type
D. Security set / Permission List
E. Permission List / User Profile
F. Access Type / Permission List
Answer: C

10. Adam is entering new hire information in the PeopleSoft system. Adam enters the new hire personal information and creates the organizational relationship of the new hire as EMPLOYEE. After Adam establishes the new hire’s relationship with the organization, the system opens the JOB DATA page for Adam to enter the new hires job-related information.
Adam decides to complete the new hires job-related information after his lunch break and cancels out of the JOB DATA page.
What must be Adam’s approach to successfully complete the new hire’s job-related information in the PeopleSoft system after his break?
A. Enter job-related information using Job Data component.
B. Complete both personal information and job information at the same time.
C. Enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.
D. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using Job Data component.
E. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance
component.
Answer: C

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1Z1-241 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 210 Q&A to your 1Z1-241 exam preparation. In the 1Z1-241 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

Free 1Z1-241 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Oracle Other Certification 1Z1-241 exam (PeopleSoft Application Developer I: People Tools & PeopleCode). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1Z1-241) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

FREE DEMO:
1.Select the three statements that are true about search records. (Choose three.)
A.Search records build the search page for the component.
B.Search records are referenced only at level zero in the component.
C.Search records rarely reference views; they are usually SQL tables.
D.Search records populate level zero on all pages that are in the component.
E.Search records provide a highlevel key to the primary records that are referenced in the component.
Answer: ADE

2. Select the most efficient way to determine the effect of modifying a definition.
A.Examine the SQL in the PeopleTools tables.
B.Use the XREF reports and visually examine the modifications.
C.Use the Find Definition Reference utility in Application Designer.
D.Use the Cross Reference utility in the PeopleTools, Utilities folder.
Answer: C

3. Select the three true statements about PeopleSoft field definitions. (Choose three.)
A.All PeopleSoft field definition names are in uppercase.
B.Date, Time, and DateTime fields all have a fixed length.
C.When you work with Number and Signed Number field types, the sum of integer and decimal positions cannot
D.Altering an existing field definition’s default label can have consequences at both the record definition
level and the page definition level.E.For a Long Character field, enter a field length of 256 to enable the
database platform to determine the maximum length of the field.
Answer: ABD

4.Select the two properties of a summary page. (Choose two.)
A.It is displayonly.
B.It contains only level zero.
C.It contains no related fields.
D.It references one record definition.
Answer: AC

5. Examine this PeopleCode snippet
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_EMPLOYEE;
Local Field &Fld_ROLE;
&RS_LEVEL0 = GetLevel0();
&ROW_LEVEL0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_LEVEL1 = &ROW_LEVEL0.GetRowSet(SCROLL.DEPT);
&ROW_LEVEL1 = &RS_LEVEL1(1);
&REC_EMPLOYEE = &ROW_LEVEL1.EMPLOYEE;
&FLD_EMPID = &REC_TASKRSRC.EMPID;
&ID = &FLD_EMPID.Value;
Can the code given above be replaced with the following statement?
&ID = GetField().Value
A. No. The record must be specified.
B.No. The row and record must be specified.
C.Yes, if the code is placed on the current row
D.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPID field.
E.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPLOYEE record.
Answer: D

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6. For the Employee Expenses application, a PeopleCode program could be placed either on the
EMPLOYEE record or on the EMP_EXPENSE component. You decide to place it on the component.
Which is a valid reason for choosing to place the program on the component instead of the record?
A.The program updates multiple database tables.
B.The program validates data across multiple records.
C.Component PeopleCode executes before record PeopleCode, so it is more efficient.
D.The record definition is used on several components, but this program should run only on this component.
E.The program initializes fields on the search page, and the search record is associated with the component.
F.The component contains several record definitions and you do not want to duplicate the code in each
record.
G.Component PeopleCode is more reusable because component PeopleCode is available for execution
on other components.
Answer: D

7. Which two PeopleCode events are part of the field action event set? (Choose two.)
A.FieldEdit
B.SystemEdit
C.FieldDefault
D.FieldFormula
E.FieldChange
F.RecordDefault
Answer: AE

8. What type of PeopleCode looping construct will loop a specified number of times?
A.For
B.While
C.Do While
D.Do Until
E.RepeatFor
Answer: A

9. On the Process Scheduler Request page, you have to define the output type for your job or process.
Which three statements are true regarding the process output type? (Choose three.)
A.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level carries through to the job items.
B.When an output type is selected for a process at the process definition level, it can be changed.
C.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level does not carry through to the job items.
D.An output type that is selected for individual job items overwrites the output type that is entered for the
parent job.
E.An output type that is selected for individual processes or jobs that are attached to a job cannot override
the tput type that is entered for the parent job.
F.An output type that is selected for a process at the process definition level overwrites the output type in
the Process Scheduler Request page, and the Type dropdown
list box in the Process Scheduler Request
page becomes unavailable.
Answer: ADF

10. Select the three properties that you can maintain in a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose three.)
A.Triggers
B.PeopleCode
C.Column order
D.Record field length
E.Query Security record
F.Prompt Security record
Answer: BCE

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Here are some practice about Microsoft 83-640 exam which are latest released by Test4actual,it provides a lot of IT certification exams,I hope they will help you pass your test.

1. Your company, Contoso, Ltd., has a main office and a branch office. The offices are connected by a WAN link. Contoso has an Active Directory forest that

contains a single domain named ad.contoso.com.
The ad.contoso.com domain contains one domain controller named DC1 that is located in the main office. DC1 is configured as a DNS server for the ad.contoso.com DNS zone. This zone is configured as a standard primary zone.
You install a new domain controller named DC2 in the branch office. You install DNS on DC2.
You need to ensure that the DNS service can update records and resolve DNS queries in the event that a WAN link fails.
What should you do?
A. Create a new stub zone named ad.contoso.com on DC2.
B. Configure the DNS server on DC2 to forward requests to DC1.
C. Create a new standard secondary zone named ad.contoso.com on DC2.
D. Convert the ad.contoso.com zone on DC1 to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
Answer: D

2. Your company has a DNS server that has 10 Active Directory–integrated zones.
You need to provide copies of the zone files of the DNS server to the security department. What should you do?
A. Run the dnscmd /ZoneInfo command.
B. Run the ipconfig /registerdns command.
C. Run the dnscmd /ZoneExport command.
D. Run the ntdsutil > Partition Management > List commands.
Answer: C

3. Your company has a single Active Directory domain named intranet.adatum.com. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and the DNS server role.
All computers, including non-domain members, dynamically register their DNS records.
You need to configure the intranet.adatum.com zone to allow only domain members to dynamically register DNS records.
What should you do?
A. Set dynamic updates to Secure Only.
B. Enable zone transfers to Name Servers.
C. Remove the Authenticated Users group.
D. Deny the Everyone group the Create All Child Objects permission.
Answer: A

4. Your company has a main office and a branch office. The company has a single-domain Active Directory forest.The main office has two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2008. The branch office has a Windows Server 2008 read-only domain controller (RODC) named DC3.
All domain controllers hold the DNS Server role and are configured as Active Directory-integrated zones. The DNS zones only allow secure updates.
You need to enable dynamic DNS updates on DC3. What should you do?
A. Run the Ntdsutil.exe > DS Behavior commands on DC3.
B. Run the Dnscmd.exe /ZoneResetType command on DC3.
C. Reinstall Active Directory Domain Services on DC3 as a writable domain controller.
D. Create a custom application directory partition on DC1. Configure the partition to store Active Directory-integrated zones.
Answer: C

5. You network consists of an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2008. All domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. The contoso.com DNS zone is stored in the ForestDnsZones Active Directory application partition.
You have a member server that contains a standard primary DNS zone for dev.contoso.com. You need to ensure that all domain controllers can resolve names for dev.contoso.com.
What should you do?
A.Create a NS record in the contoso.com zone.
B.Create a delegation in the contoso.com zone.
C.Create a standard secondary zone on a Global Catalog server.
D.Modify the properties of the SOA record in the contoso.com zone.
Answer: B

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6. Your network consists of an Active Directory forest that contains one domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. You have two Active Directory-integrated zones: contoso.com and nwtraders.com.
You need to ensure a user is able to modify records in the contoso.com zone. You must prevent the user from modifying the SOA record in the nwtraders.com zone.
What should you do?
A. From the DNS Manager console, modify the permissions of the contoso.com zone.
B. From the DNS Manager console, modify the permissions of the nwtraders.com zone.
C. From the Active Directory Users and Computers console, run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. From the Active Directory Users and Computers console, modify the permissions of the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
Answer: A

7. Your network consists of an Active Directory forest that contains one domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. You have an Active Directory-integrated zone. You have two Active Directory sites. Each site contains five domain controllers.
You add a new NS record to the zone.
You need to ensure that all domain controllers immediately receive the new NS record. What should you do?
A. From the DNS Manager console, reload the zone.
B. From the Services snap-in, restart the DNS Server service.
C. From the command prompt, run repadmin /syncall.
D. From the DNS Manager console, increase the version number of the SOA record.
Answer: C

8. You have a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2008. DC1 is configured as a DNS Server for contoso.com.
You install the DNS Server role on a member server named Server1 and then you create a standard secondary zone for contoso.com. You configure DC1 as the master server for the zone.
You need to ensure that Server1 receives zone updates from DC1. What should you do?
A. On Server1, add a conditional forwarder.
B. On DC1, modify the permissions of contoso.com zone.
C. On DC1, modify the zone transfer settings for the contoso.com zone.
D. Add the Server1 computer account to the DNSUpdateProxy group.
Answer: C

9. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. A domain controller named DC1 has a standard primary zone for contoso.com. A domain controller named DC2 has a standard secondary zone for contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the replication of the contoso.com zone is encrypted. You must not lose any zone data.
What should you do?
A. On both servers, modify the interface that the DNS server listens on.
B. Convert the primary zone into an Active Directory-integrated zone. Delete the secondary zone.
C. Convert the primary zone into an Active Directory-integrated stub zone. Delete the secondary zone.
D. Configure the zone transfer settings of the standard primary zone. Modify the Master Servers lists on the secondary zone.
Answer: B

10. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 domain controllers. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers.You plan to create a new Active Directory-integrated zone.
You need to ensure that the new zone is only replicated to four of your domain controllers. What should you do first?
A. Create a new delegation in the ForestDnsZones application directory partition.
B. Create a new delegation in the DomainDnsZones application directory partition.
C. From the command prompt, run dnscmd and specify the /enlistdirectorypartition parameter.
D. From the command prompt, run dnscmd and specify the /createdirectorypartition parameter.
Answer: D

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Here are some practice about sun 310-200 exam which are latest released by Test4actual,it provides a lot of IT certification exams,I hope they will help you pass your test.

1. An administrator needs to assign the IP address 192.168.3.7 to the interface hme1.
The hme1interface is currently unused.
Which two commands are needed to enable hme1and assign it the address without rebooting the system, as well as make the configuration persist across reboots? (Choose two.)
A. ifconfig hme1 plumb 192.168.3.7 up
B. echo “192.168.3.7″ > /etc/hostname.hme1
C. ifconfig plumb hme1 inet 192.168.3.7 netmask 255.255.255.0 up
D. echo “ifconfig hme1 plumb 192.168.3.7 up”>> /etc/hostname.hme1
Answer: AB

2. Which two statements are true about the inetdprocess on a system running the Solaris 10 OS? (Choose two.)
A. It only runs on servers.
B.It is considered the master restarter.
C. It starts well-known services on demand that are NOT automatically started at boot time.
D. It consults /etc/inet/servicesto determine which service to start when a request is received on a port.
Answer: CD

3. Due to increased demands that have been placed on your server, the swap space on this server is running low. You are going to add a swap file in the /datafile system as a temporary solution to add 500 Mbytes of additional swap space. Select the answer that describes which steps you need to perform?
A. # mkfile 500m /data swapfile
# /usr/sbin/swap -a /data/swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file:
/data/swapfile - - swap - no -
B. # mkfile 500m /data swapfile #
/usr/sbin/swapon Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file:
/data/swapfile - - swap - no -
C. # /usr/sbin/swap -a 500m /data/swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file:
/data/swapfile - - swap - no - Reboot the server
D. # swap -a 500m/data swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file:
/data/swapfile - - swap - no -
#/ usr/sbin/swapon
Answer: A

4. The Solaris 10 OS supports the sharing of remote file resources and presents them to users as if they were local files and directories. The primary distributed file system (DFS) type supported by Solaris 10 OS is NFS.
Which three statements are true about NFS as supported by Solaris 10 OS? (Choose three.)
A. The NFS server supported by Solaris 10 OS uses TCP exclusively.
B. An NFSv4-capable server can communicate with clients that use NFSv3 or earlier.
C. NFS uses the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) method of communication.
D. The NFS server supported by Solaris 10 OS can only communicate with clients using NFSv4.
E. The Solaris 10 OS uses NFSv4 by default when sharing a directory or accessing a named file.
F. The NFS server on Solaris 10 OS is started at bootup and is configured by modifying the /etc/rc.localfile.
Answer: BCE

5. In Solaris 10, this tool provides an automated and proactive approach to patch management. It provides a graphical user interface as well as a command line interface.
Which tool is it?
A. smpatch
B. Patchtool
C. Patch manager
D. Update manager
Answer: D

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6. You have Solaris Volume Manager software installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.
What should you do first?
A. run a command to create the first state database
B. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
C. run the vxinstallutility to initialize the volume manager software for use
D. create a soft partition using the -s initializeoption with the appropriate command
E. run a utility to add a license to enable Solaris Volume Manager software for Solaris 10 OS
Answer: A

7. Your system has three disk drives allocated for data storage. You are using Solaris Volume Manager to create your file system on these drives. The application will be read-intensive. Which configuration will provide the best data protection in the event of a failure?
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 1+0
Answer: A

8. You are the system administrator for a system running a business critical database application. To maintain data availability, you are using Solaris Volume Manager and have several two-way mirrors configured. You also have several hot spares created. When creating the hot spare pool, you added devices in this order:
- a 1.0 gigabyte slice
- a 2.2 gigabyte slice
- a 9.8 gigabyte slice
- a 3.2 gigabyte slice
- a 6.5 gigabyte slice
Your monitoring software sends you an email indicating that one sub-mirror of a two-way Solaris Volume Manager software mirror has gone offline because of a hardware error.The sub-mirror that was taken offline was 2.3 gigabytes in size.
Which hot spare component will the Solaris Volume Manager software use to recreate the sub-mirror automatically?
A. The 2.2 gigabyte component
B. The 3.2 gigabyte component
C. The 6.5 gigabyte component
D. The 9.8 gigabyte component
Answer: D

9. Your x86-based system has a ZFS file system named /files on the c0d1 drive. You want to rename this file system, so that every time the system boots, it is automatically mounted under the name /data. Which answer describes how to change the ZFS file system name from /files to /data?
A. zfs set mountpoint=/data data
B. zfs destroy files;zfs create /data
C. zfs destroy -f files; zpool create data c0d1
D. Create a directory named /data, then change /files to /data in the /etc/vfstab file.
Answer: A

10. Your system is newly built and has a default set up.
When you add an account using roleadd, what is the default shell?
A. /usr/bin/sh
B. /usr/bin/ksh
C. /usr/bin/pfsh
D. /usr/bin/prsh
E. /usr/bin/pfjsh
F. /usr/bin/prksh
Answer: C

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Hello,everyone,Test4actual is the first to update the sun 310-200 exam,here are some practice about sun 310-200 exam,we hope we can help you pass your test.

1. You are installing Solaris 10 OS on a SPARC-based system with a graphical monitor and keyboard, but the installation starts up in CLI mode.
Assuming you have typed the correct installation command, what is the cause?
A. You used the DVD.
B. The monitor is monochrome.
C. Solaris OS is a text-only installation.
D. The system has less than 384 megabytes of RAM.
E. The system has less than 128 megabytes of RAM.
Answer: E

2. Most files in the Solaris OS make use of data blocks. Which two do NOT use data blocks for storage? (Choose two.)
A. Hard link
B. Directory
C. Device file
D. Symbolic link
Answer: AC

3. You have installed a package called SUNWvts onto your system.
Where is the information about every file and directory contained in this package stored?
A. /var/sadm/messages
B. In your home directory.
C. /var/spool/SUNWvts
D. /var/sadm/install/contents
E. /var/adm/installed/contents
F. /etc/default/installed/packages/information
Answer: D

4. You just installed Solaris on your x86 server and you cannot get your system to boot to the Solaris 10 OS. When rebooting, you get three options in the GRUB menu:
Solaris
Solaris Serial Console ttya
Solaris Serial Console ttyb
You select Solaris from the menu and another menu appears:
1. Solaris Interactive
2. Custom JumpStart
3. Solaris Interactive Text (Desktop Session)
4. Solaris Interactive Text (Console Session)
5. Apply driver update
6. Single User Shell
You check the BIOS settings on the server and the boot device priority is as follows:
First Boot Device [FLOPPY]
Second boot device [CDROM]
Third Boot Device [HARD DISK]
Fourth Boot Device [LAN]
Which option can you use to fix the problem?
A. The boot device priority is fine, your hard drive must be faulty or the boot block is missing. Boot to CDROM, open a shell and run fsck on the Hard Disk.
B. Change the boot device priority so that the CDROM is the third boot device and the HARD DISK is second.
C. Make the First boot device = LAN, Second boot device= CDROM, Third boot device = HARD DISK, remove the fourth boot device.
D. You did not set the fdisk boot partition to ACTIVE and the system cannot boot to the hard disk. Boot from CDROM, open a shell and use fdisk to set the partition to ACTIVE.
E. The GRUB menu is not correct and Solaris is not pointing to the hard disk that youve installed the Solaris OS on. Edit the GRUB menu and modify the default boot device so that it points to the correct boot drive.
Answer: B

5. Another system administrator created several snapshots on the server. The snapshots were backed up to tape using ufsdump. The tapes were labeled using each virtual device name and the corresponding mount point but does not include the name of the original file system where the snapshot was taken. How can you determine the file system that was backed up to tape?
A. Load the tape and list what is on the tape.
B. Use /usr/sbin/fssnap -i and compare the virtual device to its corresponding filesystem.
C. Use /usr/lib/fs/ufs/fssnap -i and compare the virtual device to its corresponding filesystem.
D. Check the /etc/dumpdates file- the actual file system name will be stored there with the other backup information.
Answer: C

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6. The print service under the control of SMF needs to be taken offline. Before the print service is taken offline, a check must be made to see what other services depend on this service.
Which command will display these dependencies?
A. svcs -X
B. svcs -v
C. svcs -a
D. svcs -D
Answer: D

7. You want to monitor a failed login after five unsuccessful attempts.
Which file contains this information?
A. /var/adm/sulog
B. /var/adm/lastlog
C. /var/adm/loginlog
D. /var/adm/failedloginlog
Answer: C

8. Given:
joe@dhcp-105# ftp dhcp-100
Connected to dhcp-100.corp.com.
220 dhcp-100 FTP server ready.
Name (dhcp-100:root): root
331 Password required for root.
Password: root
530 Login incorrect.
Login failed.
ftp>
Which two statements are always true? (Choose two.)
A. The password for root on dhcp-105 is root.
B. A user on dhcp-105 is not authorized to log in to dhcp-100.
C. A user on dhcp-105 is trying use ftp to connect to dhcp-100.
D. A user on dhcp-100 sucessfully logged in to dhcp-105.
E. A user on dhcp-105 is trying to log in to dhcp-100 with the root id.
Answer: CE

9. The print server on the network has one print spooler defined, called printer1. You have a requirement to modify the shell script that actually sends the jobs associated with printer1 to the printer.
Which file should you modify?
A. /etc/printers.conf
B. /etc/lp/interfaces/printer1
C. /var/spool/lp/requests/printer1
D. /usr/lib/lp/postscript/postprint
Answer: B

10. A server has not had any changes made to the configuration of the standard system login accounts. It has a number of tape devices attached to it. The server is the only system on the local network that has tape devices. A file must be configured to allow backups.
Which file must be correctly configured on the system with the tape devices attached to enable the other system to successfully perform its backup?
A. /.rhosts
B. /etc/hosts.equiv
C. /etc/rmt/tape.conf
D. /etc/hostname.rmt0
Answer: A

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1Z0-238 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1Z0-238) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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1.What are the two occasions when it is appropriate to run “Compile APPS schema” by using the AD Administration utility in the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness Suite environment? (Choose two.)
A.during the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness Suite upgrade process
B.when custom packages are moved to the APPS schema and need to be compiled
C.after enabling the multiple reporting currencies in the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness Suite environment
D.after enabling the multiorganization functionality in the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness Suite environment
E.when encountering invalid objects in the SYS and SYSTEM schemas in the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness Suite database
Answer: AB
2. What are the two possible sequences of worker status while a job is being completed by a worker?
(Choose two.)
A.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Completed
B.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Completed
C.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
D.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
E.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Running => Completed
Answer: AC
3. Identify the files that are changed when you run AutoConfig. (Choose all that apply.)
A./listener.ora
B./.env
C./admin/adconfig.txt
D./.env
E./appl/admin/.xml
Answer: ABD
4.Identify the patch that you apply to upgrade the Oracle Applications system from the 11.5.5 version to the 11.5.10 version.
A.diagnostic patch
B.standalone patch
C.maintenance pack
D.product family release update pack
Answer: C
5. You want to apply a patch on your Oracle Applications system. Before doing this, you want to view the
files that are new, changed, and ignored while applying the patch.
Which feature of the Patch Wizard would help you accomplish this?
A.Patch Filters
B.Patch Impact Analysis
C.Recommended Patches
D.Patch Information Bundle
Answer: B

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6. Which table is used by AutoPatch as a staging area for the job information in parallel mode and needs
to be dropped to start a new autopatch session if the earlier session failed?
A.FND_JOBS
B.FND_PROCESSES
C.FND_INSTALL_PROCESSES
D.FND_INSTALLED_PROCESSES
Answer: C
7. If the patch is running in PreInstall mode, where would the patch history files be stored in Oracle Applications R12 configured on a UNIX operating system?
A.$AD_TOP/admin
B.$APPL_TOP/admin
C.$TEMP/runInstaller
D.$APPL_TOP/admin/
E.$COMMON_TOP/admin/
Answer: D
8. As part of the cloning process, the Applications DBA needs to copy the application tier file system to the
target system.
Which step is NOT a part of this process?
A.Shut down the application tier server processes.
B.Log on to the target system application tier nodes as the oracle user.
C.Copy the APPL_TOP directory from the source node to the target node.
D.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
E.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
F.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
G.Copy the <806 ORACLE_HOME> directory from the source node to the target node.
Answer: B
9. While working with Web forms an application user sometimes comes across a performance issue. The
initial screen takes too long to appear with the Web form screen, showing the status “Downloading JAR
files…” for a long time.Identify the reasons for this. (Choose two.)
A.It always takes time to load the Web forms.
B.An older version of Sun J2SE plugin is installed on the Desktop tier.
C.JAR files for the Forms client applet are downloaded automatically the first time it is used.
D.The browser will automatically retrieve new JAR files if they have changed on the application tier.
E.The Internet Explorer browser security level should be set as “Low” for the zone that contains the
Oracle Application Release 12 Web pages.
Answer: CD
10.After the successful installation of Oracle Applications Release 12, environment files are created.
Which environment file is used to identify and describe thirdparty and custom applications linked with Oracle Applications?
A.the context file
B.the devenv.env file
C.the fndenv.env file
D.the adovars.env file
E.the adconfig.txt file
Answer: B

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-232 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-232) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1. Choose the concurrent program to execute in order to understand or document a menu structure.
A. Object Security Report
B. Function Security Report
C. Menu Profile Report
D. Object Function Report
Answer: B
2. Which three search criteria are valid when using the status monitor in Standalone Oracle workflow?
(Choose three.)
A. workflow
B. workflow type
C. notification type
D. workflow started
Answer: ABD
3. Which two components are required to create a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. Menu
B. Exclusions
C. Data Group
D. Request Group
E. User Assignments
Answer:AC
4. Identify three conditions under which a concurrent request may be permitted to be placed on hold.
(Choose three.)
A. Pending – Normal
B. Running – Normal
C. Inactive – On Hold
D. Running – Paused
E. Pending – Scheduled
F. Inactive – No Manager
Answer:AEF
5. A _____ is a collection of reports and concurrent programs that is used to implement security at the
responsibility level.
A. request set
B. request group
C. concurrent group
D. responsibility access group
Answer: B

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6. Identify the correct concurrent request phase and status for a request being evaluated by the Conflict
Resolution Manager.
A. Pending – Normal
B. Running – Normal
C. Running – Paused
D. Pending – Standby
E. Pending – Scheduled
Answer: D
7. One of the Administrators indicated that even 10 minutes after starting the Standard Manager, it is still
not running any requests, and the pending jobs are piling up in the queue. The administrator has requested for your help. You are looking at the Administer Concurrent Manager screen, and you notice the following: For the Internal Manager the number of actual processes is 0, target processes is 0, and pending requests is 1. For the Standard Manager the number of actual processes is 0, target processes is 3, and pending requests is 56. For the Conflict Resolution Manager the number of actual processes is 0, target processes is 0, and pending requests is 1. Analyze the state of the concurrent managers and identify the solution for resolving this issue.
A. The Internal Manager is not running, it must be started before the request to start the Standard
Manager can be executed. Enter the operating system and start the Internal Manager.
B. The Internal Manager is not running, it must be started before the request to start the Standard
Manager can be executed. Place the cursor on the Internal Manager record and press the Restart button.
C. The Conflict Resolution Manager is not running, it must be started before the request to start the
Standard Manager can be executed. Place the cursor on the Conflict Resolution Manager record and
press the Restart button.
Answer:A
8. Which statement is correct about the Workflow Monitor?
A. It is a Web page that enables users to monitor their workflow processes.
B. It is a stand-alone Windows PC program that enables users to monitor their workflow processes.
C. It is an administrator-only Web page that enables administrators to monitor any workflow processes.
D. It is a stand-alone Windows PC program that enables administrators to monitor workflow processes.
Answer:A
9. Which three statements are true with respect to Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Role
Inheritance in Oracle User Management? (Choose three.)
A. A user can have only one role defined.
B. A role cannot have multiple responsibilities
C. Permissions associated with a role are not inherited by all its superior roles.
D. Permissions associated with a role are inherited by all its superior roles and the individuals to which any of these roles are assigned.
E. RBAC removes the existing link the need for creating separate responsibilities for combinations of job
functions.
F. A role can be configured to consolidate the responsibilities, permissions, function security and data
security polices that users require to be able to perform a specific function.
Answer: DEF
10. You are using the System Profile Option screen to initialize the value of a profile option at several
levels. You selectthe levels, the level context, and the profile option to change. You are able to default the
value for the site, application and responsibility, but you are unable to change the value for the user level.
Which statement explains this situation?
A. The responsibility secures the ability to control profile options.
B. The application prevents the changing of canned profile options at that level.
C. Another profile option toggles changing of profile options at the user level by the system administrator
and is currently false.
D. Only users are permitted to set their profile option values by using the personal profile settings.
E. The profile option definition prohibits changing the value of the profile option at that level.
Answer: E

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-231 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1z0-231 exam? Searching 1z0-231 Test Questions, 1z0-231 Practice Exam, 1z0-231 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 126 Q&A to your 1z0-231 exam preparation. In the 1z0-231 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

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Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-231) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1. Which correctly describes the tiers of the Oracle Workflow architecture?
A. Oracle Database tier and Application server tier only
B. Oracle Database tier, Application server tier, and End-user client tier only
C. Oracle Database tier, Application server tier, and Development client tier only
D. Oracle Database tier, Application server tier, Development client tier, and End-user client tier
Answer: D
2. Which two agent listeners are meant for Oracle eBusiness Suite only? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow Error
B. Workflow Deferred
C. Workflow Java Error
D. Workflow Java Deferred
E. Workflow Inbound Notification
F. Workflow Deferred Notification
Answer: CD
3. Under which four conditions can you create transitions, if the source activity in a workflow diagram has
an associated result type? (Choose four.)
A. regardless of the result returned, labeled as
B. when the activity times out, labeled as
C. when the activity does not return a result, labeled as
D. when a result returned is not covered by other transitions, labeled as
E. when a specific result is returned by the activity, labeled with the result display name
F. when the activity run simultaneously with 1 or more other activities, labeled as
Answer: ABDE
4. You are maintaining subscriptions in an Oracle database. Which property of that subscription allows you to update it?
A. Phase
B. Status
C. Source Type
D. Rule Function
E. Customization Level
Answer: E
5. You have been tasked with creating Business Events for an E-Business Suite workflow project. What
would you use to create your Business Events?
A. Oracle Workflow Builder
B. Oracle Workflow Definition Loader
C. Oracle Business Event Definition Loader
D. Workflow Administrator Web page in E-Business Suite
Answer: D

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6. Which two statements are true about a Work Item with “Open” Notification? (Choose two.)
A. The Work Item is not eligible for Purge.
B. The Work Item is eligible for a Permanent purge.
C. The Work Item is eligible for a Temporary purge.
D. The Work Item is not complete because it still has “Open” Notification.
E. The Work Item is eligible for both Temporary and Permanent purge.
Answer: AD
7. What is true about a background engine? (Choose two.)
A. It is a server-side PL/SQL procedure.
B. When executing a PL/SQL function activity, it will automatically ping (cache) the PL/SQL code.
C. It executes deferred activities in decreasing order of their Cost property value (activities with higher
cost value are processed first).
D. It would fail if another background engine process is started to handle the same type of activities within
the same item type.
E. During its single invocation, it processes activities that were stuck, deferred or timed out when the
background engine was started.
Answer: AE
8. Which two are functions of Oracle Workflow Directory Service? (Choose two.)
A. manage workflow notifications
B. provide information about roles
C. store performer and roles relationships
D. manage workflow session connection
Answer: BC
9. Which option best describes the features of the Personal Worklist page, as compared with Advanced
Worklist?
A. provides an overview of notifications
B. provides the capability to administer notifications
C. provides the most detailed options for searching workflow
D. provides the most detailed options for searching workflow, and provides the capability to administer
notifications
Answer: C
10. The WF_PARAMETER_LIST_T datatype can include up to a maximum of _____ parameter name and value pairs.
A. 99
B. 100
C. 101
D. 999
E. 1000
Answer: B

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-212 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1z0-212 exam? Searching 1z0-212 Test Questions, 1z0-212 Practice Exam, 1z0-212 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 116 Q&A to your 1z0-212 exam preparation. In the 1z0-212 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

Free 1z0-212 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Oracle Other Certification 1z0-212 exam (Oracle payables 11i funfamentats). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-212) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Which four statements are true about modifying a payment batch? (Choose four.)
A.You can create a zeroamount payment for a supplier site.
B.You can remove all invoices for a particular supplier site.
C.You can create a negativeamount
payment to clear a credit memo.
D.You can modify the payment or discount amounts for a selected invoice.
E.Payables automatically builds payments after you modify a payment batch.
Correct:A B D E
2.From which three areas do the defaults come when you enter a supplier? (Choose three.)
A.Items
B.Operating Unit
C.Financial Options
D.Payables Options
E.Receiving Options
Correct:C D E
3.The bank account in the Payment Batches and Payments window defaults from _____.
A.Supplier level
B.Bank Accounts
C.Supplier Site level
D.Financial Options
E.Payables Options Payments region
Correct:E
4.Why would you use the clearing payment method?
A.to generate a payment document to clear a debit memo
B.to generate a payment document to clear a credit memo
C.to account for intercompany expenses when you disburse funds through banks
D.to account for intercompany expenses when you do not disburse funds through banks
Correct:D
5.Which two statements regarding receipt accruals are true? (Choose two.)
A.For accruals generated at period end, the accrual is sent to General Ledger after the Receipt Accruals PeriodEnd process is run and the accrual is cleared when the journal entry is reversed in General Ledger.
B.For accruals generated at receipt, the accrual is automatically sent to General Ledger and subsequently
cleared when the journal entry is reversed in General Ledger.
C.For accruals generated at period end, the accrual is sent to General Ledger after the Receipt Accruals PeriodEnd process is run and subsequently cleared when an invoice is entered and matched to the
purchase order.
D.For accruals generated at receipt, the accrual is automatically sent to General Ledger and
subsequently cleared when an invoice is entered and matched to the purchase order.
Correct:A D

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6.Which statement is true about invoices?
A.An invoice can be paid without being validated.
B.An invoice can be paid only after the invoice accounting entries are created.
C.Both invoice accounting entries and payment accounting entries need to be transferred to General Ledger at the same time if they are in the same calendar period.
D.An invoice needs to be validated before you can create the invoice accounting entries.
E.Invoice accounting entries and payment accounting entries can be transferred at different times to General Ledger only if they are in different calendar periods.
Correct:D
7.Client R has configured its Accounts Payables application to require threeway
matching. All
invoice tolerances are set to zero. No discounts are allowed. A standard purchase order is entered for consulting services only. An invoice is entered and matched against this purchase order, having no tax or freight charges on it. The total invoice amount matches the distribution amount.
When the steps to prepare the invoice for payment are completed, the invoice is placed on hold.
The companys business policy states that all holds cannot be manually released. The client wants to pay this supplier now. What would you recommend?
A.Manually release the hold because it is not a system hold.
B.The service must be received in Purchasing because threeway matching is required
C.The service must be received in Accounts Payable because it is a purchase order for a service and not
a commodity or item.
D.Inspection is required because it is a threeway match, so you have to register the inspection in the system first.
E.Change the invoice tolerances in the Payables Options form to be greater than zero, so that the invoice
does not go on hold again.
Correct:B
8.The periodclose processes of which Oracle Applications can be directly affected by the Payables periodclose activities and processes? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Purchasing
B.Installed Base
C.Advanced Pricing
D.Assets
E.Enterprise Asset Management (EAM)
Correct:A D
9.ABC Inc. has found that one of its suppliers needs to be enabled as a 1099 vendor, which is a taxrelated
designation for selfemployed contractors. But for this supplier invoices have already been entered and paid. Which two steps should the company take to ensure accurate tax reporting?
(Choose two.)
A.Run the Update Income Tax Details Report.
B.Update the tax reporting information in the supplier site.
C.Create a new supplier with tax reporting information and merge the supplier.
D.Create a new supplier site with tax information and update the supplier site in all invoices.
Correct:A B
10.Company A wants to use Oracle Internet Expenses, and wants to set up expense report templates for that purpose. Which three statements are true about the setup of the expense report
templates? (Choose three.)
A.The expense report must be enabled for Internet Expenses.
B.The policy schedule must be attached to the expense item.
C.Each expense item must have an expense category assigned to it.
D.The tax code assigned to an expense item must be Web enabled.
E.The GL account assigned to an expense item must have all the Accounting Flexfield segment values filled in.
Correct:A C D

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11.Which four selection criteria can be used when creating a payment batch? (Choose four.)
A.Supplier
B.Due Date
C.Customer
D.Pay Group
E.Invoice Batch
F.Payment Priority
Correct:A D E F
12.In standalone AP, you can enable autonumbering for _____ through the Financial Options form.
A.invoices
B.suppliers
C.payments
D.employees
E.expense reports
Correct:B
13.Identify four purposes for which the Special Calendar is used. (Choose four.)
A.for payment terms
B.for recurring invoices
C.for the Key Indicators Report
D.for automatic tax withholding
E.for opening and closing payables periods, which Payables uses to allow transactions to process in
General Ledger accounting periods
F.for controlling the number of future periods that Payables would allow for invoice entry and accounting
Correct:A B C D
14.Which items do not require approval through the workflow? (Choose all that apply.)
A.invoices not matched to a purchase order
B.invoices that existed before you enabled the feature
C.expense reports imported through the Payables Expense Report Import Program
D.recurring invoices if the recurring invoice template did not have the Approval Workflow Required option
enabled
E.invoices that completed the Invoice Approval Workflow process, and the Invoice Approval Workflow
process determined that according to the rules set up in Oracle Approvals Management, no one needs to
approve the invoice
Correct:B C D E
15.At your client site, under Payables Options, the Transfer to GL option has been set to Summarize by Accounting Period. The period end close processes for Accounts Payable have run and the Payables journals (Purchase Invoices and Payments) have been created and posted in General Ledger. Which statement is true?
A.Drilling down from the journals of Purchase Invoices and Payments categories in GL to Payables is possible.
B.Drilling down from the journals of the Payments category in GL to Payables is possible, but drilling down
from journals of the Purchase Invoices category in GL to Payables is not possible.
C.Drilling down from the journals of the Purchase Invoices category in GL is possible, but drilling down
from journals of the Payments category in GL to Payables is not possible.
D.Drilling down from GL to Payables is not possible.
Correct:A

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Hello,everyone,Test4actual is the first to update the IBM 000-100 exam,here are some practice about IBM 000-100 exam,we hope we can help you pass your test.

1. A customer has 2 VIO servers, supporting 4 client partitions. They want to configure Shared Ethernet Adapter Failover.
What is the minimum number of physical Ethernet adapters required for each VIO server?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
ANSWER: A

2. What is the minimum requirement to update the managed system’s firmware from the HMC if inventory scout is already installed?
A.A public internet connection
B.All logical partitions must be active
C.One partition must be configured with Service Authority
D.A local repository must be configured prior to the update
ANSWER: C

3. A customer wants to use Live Application Mobility which comes as part of the Workload Partition virtualization offering. Which of the following is the minimum configuration that will satisfy the customer requirement?
A.AIX 6.1 with POWER6
B.AIX 6.1 with POWER4
C.AIX 5.3 with POWER5
D.AIX 5.3 with POWER4
ANSWER: B

4. A customer wishes to use Live Partition Mobility for system maintenance.
What is the minimum requirement?
A.PowerHA
B.Virtual I/O server 1.4
C.AIX Enterprise Edition
D.PowerVM Standard Edition
ANSWER: C

5. A customer is planning to use Live Partition Mobility on a new Power 570.
Which of the following must be considered when pre-configuring the system in the IBM System Planning Tool (SPT)?
A.VIO-server setup is unsupported in SPT
B.Live Partition Mobility is unsupported in SPT
C.IVE setup is unsupported when using Live Partition Mobility
D.VIO-server setup is unsupported when using Live Partition Mobility
ANSWER: C

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6. The Integrated Virtualization Manager is packaged with which of the following?
A.PowerVM
B.Virtual I/O Server
C.Partition Load Manager
D.Virtual Workload Manager
ANSWER: B

7. What is required to collect data for analysis by the Workload Estimator (WLE)?
A.WLE LPP
B.WLE servlet
C.bos.wle.rte fileset
D.AIX 5.3 TL3 or later
ANSWER: D

8. A customer has multiple POWER5 systems connected to one HMC at version 6. They have ordered a new POWER6 system. What is necessary in order to get the new POWER6 system managed by an HMC?
A.The old HMC can be used without change.
B.The old HMC must be upgraded to the latest level.
C.POWER6 and POWER5 must be connected to different HMCs.
D.The POWER6 system must have a separate partition on the HMC.
ANSWER: B

9. A customer has purchased a 64-way Power 595. What must be considered when planning the physical location?
A.A Power 595 requires three-phase electricity on its own UPS.
B.A Power 595 must be placed on a concrete floor due to its weight.
C.A Power 595 must be placed on a raised floor because of the cooling requirement.
D.A Power 595 requires 1 meter of clear space on all sides for maintenance and airflow.
ANSWER: C

10. A customer has a VIOS environment configured on a Power 570 server. There are two LPARs with application servers and three with Oracle databases. Data disks are located on EMC Symmetrix boxes attached via SVC. Which driver should be used for disks on VIO servers?
A.SVCD
B.RDAC
C.SDDPCM
D.PowerPath
ANSWER: C

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11. On a POWER6 570, which of the following will allow a single disk device to have multiple paths to a partition running AIX 6.1?
A.The SDD function included in AIX 6.1.
B.The MPIO function included in AIX 6.1.
C.The optional SDD driver on the AIX 6.1 installation media.
D.The optional MPIO driver on the AIX 6.1 installation media.
ANSWER: B

12. A customer is installing a Power 595 with dual HMCs for redundancy. What must be considered?
A.Each HMC requires use of different DHCP address ranges.
B.Both HMCs must be connected to the managed systems on the same private subnet.
C.The HMCs must be connected to the same port on the managed system using an internal hub.
D.The primary HMC must be configured as a DHCP host and the failover HMC as a DHCP client.
ANSWER: A

13. A customer has configured a dual VIOS environment and wants to map SAN attached disks to an LPAR using each VIO server. One VIO server is configured and the LPAR can see the disk but when trying to map the disks on the second VIO server, an error is given stating that there is no access to the device.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A.The hdisk numbers on the VIO servers do not match.
B.MPIO support had not been installed on VIO server 2.
C.The virtual SCSI adapter on VIO server 2 does not have the client LPAR name defined.
D.The reserve_policy attribute of the hdisk is not set appropriately on the 1st VIO server.
ANSWER: D

14. A system administrator for a business recovery service center needs to test disaster recovery strategies for their clients who run AIX and Linux on several LPARs. Each client has a different system configuration. Each time a client comes in, the system configuration of the managed system must change for disaster recovery verification.
What is the most efficient way to handle this using LPAR?
A.Create a set of LPARs for each client utilizing the needed resources and activate this set of LPARs.
B.Create one partition profile for each client. Reconfigure the managed system by activating the partition profile for that client.
C.Dynamically move processors and memory as needed into each logical partition. Reconfigure the managed system by activating and deactivating partition profiles.
D.Create a system profile for each client to combine the partition profiles needed. Reconfigure the managed system by activating and deactivating the system profile corresponding to that client.
ANSWER: D

15. A customer is planning for Live Partition Mobility. Which of the following can be used for this configuration?
A.Use of Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) and Fiber Channel (FC) devices for that partition.
B.Use of Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) and Virtual SCSI (vSCSI) devices for that partition.
C.Use of Integrated Virtual Ethernet Adapter (IVE) logical port and Fiber Channel (FC) devices for that partition.
D.Use of Integrated Virtual Ethernet Adapter (IVE) logical port and Virtual SCSI (vSCSI) devices for that partition.
ANSWER: B

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