“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1Z1-241 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 210 Q&A to your 1Z1-241 exam preparation. In the 1Z1-241 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

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Test4actual offers free demo for Oracle Other Certification 1Z1-241 exam (PeopleSoft Application Developer I: People Tools & PeopleCode). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1Z1-241) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Select the three statements that are true about search records. (Choose three.)
A.Search records build the search page for the component.
B.Search records are referenced only at level zero in the component.
C.Search records rarely reference views; they are usually SQL tables.
D.Search records populate level zero on all pages that are in the component.
E.Search records provide a highlevel
key to the primary records that are referenced in the component.
Answer: ADE
2. Select the most efficient way to determine the effect of modifying a definition.
A.Examine the SQL in the PeopleTools tables.
B.Use the XREF reports and visually examine the modifications.
C.Use the Find Definition Reference utility in Application Designer.
D.Use the Cross Reference utility in the PeopleTools, Utilities folder.
Answer: C
3. Select the three true statements about PeopleSoft field definitions. (Choose three.)
A.All PeopleSoft field definition names are in uppercase.
B.Date, Time, and DateTime fields all have a fixed length.
C.When you work with Number and Signed Number field types, the sum of integer and decimal positions
cannot
D.Altering an existing field definition’s default label can have consequences at both the record definition
level and the page definition level.E.For a Long Character field, enter a field length of 256 to enable the
database platform to determine the maximum length of the field.
Answer: ABD
4.Select the two properties of a summary page. (Choose two.)
A.It is displayonly.
B.It contains only level zero.
C.It contains no related fields.
D.It references one record definition.
Answer: AC
5. Examine this PeopleCode snippet
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_EMPLOYEE;
Local Field &Fld_ROLE;
&RS_LEVEL0 = GetLevel0();
&ROW_LEVEL0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_LEVEL1 = &ROW_LEVEL0.GetRowSet(SCROLL.DEPT);
&ROW_LEVEL1 = &RS_LEVEL1(1);
&REC_EMPLOYEE = &ROW_LEVEL1.EMPLOYEE;
&FLD_EMPID = &REC_TASKRSRC.EMPID;
&ID = &FLD_EMPID.Value;
Can the code given above be replaced with the following statement?
&ID = GetField().Value
A. No. The record must be specified.
B.No. The row and record must be specified.
C.Yes, if the code is placed on the current row
D.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPID field.
E.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPLOYEE record.
Answer: D

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6. For the Employee Expenses application, a PeopleCode program could be placed either on the
EMPLOYEE record or on the EMP_EXPENSE component. You decide to place it on the component.
Which is a valid reason for choosing to place the program on the component instead of the record?
A.The program updates multiple database tables.
B.The program validates data across multiple records.
C.Component PeopleCode executes before record PeopleCode, so it is more efficient.
D.The record definition is used on several components, but this program should run only on this
component.
E.The program initializes fields on the search page, and the search record is associated with the
component.
F.The component contains several record definitions and you do not want to duplicate the code in each
record.
G.Component PeopleCode is more reusable because component PeopleCode is available for execution
on other components.
Answer: D
7. Which two PeopleCode events are part of the field action event set? (Choose two.)
A.FieldEdit
B.SystemEdit
C.FieldDefault
D.FieldFormula
E.FieldChange
F.RecordDefault
Answer: AE
8. What type of PeopleCode looping construct will loop a specified number of times?
A.For
B.While
C.Do While
D.Do Until
E.RepeatFor
Answer: A
9. On the Process Scheduler Request page, you have to define the output type for your job or process.
Which three statements are true regarding the process output type? (Choose three.)
A.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level carries through to the job items.
B.When an output type is selected for a process at the process definition level, it can be changed.
C.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level does not carry through to the job items.
D.An output type that is selected for individual job items overwrites the output type that is entered for the
parent job.
E.An output type that is selected for individual processes or jobs that are attached to a job cannot override
the tput type that is entered for the parent job.
F.An output type that is selected for a process at the process definition level overwrites the output type in
the Process Scheduler Request page, and the Type dropdown list box in the Process Scheduler Request
page becomes
ANSWER:ADF
10. Select the three properties that you can maintain in a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose three.)
A.Triggers
B.PeopleCode
C.Column order
D.Record field length
E.Query Security record
F.Prompt Security record
Answer: BCE

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1Z0-238 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1Z0-238 exam? Searching 1Z0-238 Test Questions, 1Z0-238 Practice Exam, 1Z0-238 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 223 Q&A to your 1Z0-238 exam preparation. In the 1Z0-238 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

Free 1Z0-238 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Oracle Other Certification 1Z0-238 exam (R12 Oracle: install,Patch and Maintain Oracle Applications). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1Z0-238) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.What are the two occasions when it is appropriate to run “Compile APPS schema” by using the AD
Administration utility in the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness
Suite environment? (Choose two.)
A.during the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness
Suite upgrade process
B.when custom packages are moved to the APPS schema and need to be compiled
C.after enabling the multiple reporting currencies in the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness Suite environment
D.after enabling the multiorganization functionality in the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness Suite environment
E.when encountering invalid objects in the SYS and SYSTEM schemas in the Oracle Applications R12 EBusiness Suite database
Answer: AB
2. What are the two possible sequences of worker status while a job is being completed by a worker?
(Choose two.)
A.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Completed
B.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Completed
C.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
D.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
E.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Running => Completed
Answer: AC
3. Identify the files that are changed when you run AutoConfig. (Choose all that apply.)
A./listener.ora
B./.env
C./admin/adconfig.txt
D./.env
E./appl/admin/.xml
Answer: ABD
4.Identify the patch that you apply to upgrade the Oracle Applications system from the 11.5.5 version to
the 11.5.10 version.
A.diagnostic patch
B.standalone
patch
C.maintenance pack
D.product family release update pack
Answer: C
5. You want to apply a patch on your Oracle Applications system. Before doing this, you want to view the
files that are new, changed, and ignored while applying the patch.
Which feature of the Patch Wizard would help you accomplish this?
A.Patch Filters
B.Patch Impact Analysis
C.Recommended Patches
D.Patch Information Bundle
Answer: B

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6. Which table is used by AutoPatch as a staging area for the job information in parallel mode and needs
to be dropped to start a new autopatch session if the earlier session failed?
A.FND_JOBS
B.FND_PROCESSES
C.FND_INSTALL_PROCESSES
D.FND_INSTALLED_PROCESSES
Answer: C
7. If the patch is running in PreInstall
mode, where would the patch history files be stored in Oracle
Applications R12 configured on a UNIX operating system?
A.$AD_TOP/admin
B.$APPL_TOP/admin
C.$TEMP/runInstaller
D.$APPL_TOP/admin/
E.$COMMON_TOP/admin/
Answer: D
8. As part of the cloning process, the Applications DBA needs to copy the application tier file system to the
target system.
Which step is NOT a part of this process?
A.Shut down the application tier server processes.
B.Log on to the target system application tier nodes as the oracle user.
C.Copy the APPL_TOP directory from the source node to the target node.
D.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
E.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
F.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
G.Copy the <806 ORACLE_HOME> directory from the source node to the target node.
Answer: B
9. While working with Web forms an application user sometimes comes across a performance issue. The
initial screen takes too long to appear with the Web form screen, showing the status “Downloading JAR
files…” for a long time.
Identify the reasons for this. (Choose two.)
A.It always takes time to load the Web forms.
B.An older version of Sun J2SE plugin
is installed on the Desktop tier.
C.JAR files for the Forms client applet are downloaded automatically the first time it is used.
D.The browser will automatically retrieve new JAR files if they have changed on the application tier.
E.The Internet Explorer browser security level should be set as “Low” for the zone that contains the
Oracle Application Release 12 Web pages.
Answer: CD
10.After the successful installation of Oracle Applications Release 12, environment files are created.
Which environment file is used to identify and describe thirdparty and custom applications linked with
Oracle Applications?
A.the context file
B.the devenv.env file
C.the fndenv.env file
D.the adovars.env file
E.the adconfig.txt file
Answer: B

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-232 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1z0-232 exam? Searching 1z0-232 Test Questions, 1z0-232 Practice Exam, 1z0-232 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 131 Q&A to your 1z0-232 exam preparation. In the 1z0-232 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

Free 1z0-232 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Oracle Other Certification 1z0-232 exam (Oracle 11i system administration fundamentals). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-232) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1. Choose the concurrent program to execute in order to understand or document a menu structure.
A. Object Security Report
B. Function Security Report
C. Menu Profile Report
D. Object Function Report
Answer: B
2. Which three search criteria are valid when using the status monitor in Standalone Oracle workflow?
(Choose three.)
A. workflow
B. workflow type
C. notification type
D. workflow started
Answer: ABD
3. Which two components are required to create a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. Menu
B. Exclusions
C. Data Group
D. Request Group
E. User Assignments
Answer:AC
4. Identify three conditions under which a concurrent request may be permitted to be placed on hold.
(Choose three.)
A. Pending – Normal
B. Running – Normal
C. Inactive – On Hold
D. Running – Paused
E. Pending – Scheduled
F. Inactive – No Manager
Answer:AEF
5. A _____ is a collection of reports and concurrent programs that is used to implement security at the
responsibility level.
A. request set
B. request group
C. concurrent group
D. responsibility access group
Answer: B

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6. Identify the correct concurrent request phase and status for a request being evaluated by the Conflict
Resolution Manager.
A. Pending – Normal
B. Running – Normal
C. Running – Paused
D. Pending – Standby
E. Pending – Scheduled
Answer: D
7. One of the Administrators indicated that even 10 minutes after starting the Standard Manager, it is still
not running any requests, and the pending jobs are piling up in the queue. The administrator has
requested for your help. You are looking at the Administer Concurrent Manager screen, and you notice
the following: For the Internal Manager the number of actual processes is 0, target processes is 0, and
pending requests is 1. For the Standard Manager the number of actual
processes is 0, target processes is 3, and pending requests is 56. For the Conflict Resolution Manager
the number of actual processes is 0, target processes is 0, and pending requests is 1. Analyze the state of
the concurrent managers and identify the solution for resolving this issue.
A. The Internal Manager is not running, it must be started before the request to start the Standard
Manager can be executed. Enter the operating system and start the Internal Manager.
B. The Internal Manager is not running, it must be started before the request to start the Standard
Manager can be executed. Place the cursor on the Internal Manager record and press the Restart button.
C. The Conflict Resolution Manager is not running, it must be started before the request to start the
Standard Manager can be executed. Place the cursor on the Conflict Resolution Manager record and
press the Restart button.
Answer:A
8. Which statement is correct about the Workflow Monitor?
A. It is a Web page that enables users to monitor their workflow processes.
B. It is a stand-alone Windows PC program that enables users to monitor their workflow processes.
C. It is an administrator-only Web page that enables administrators to monitor any workflow processes.
D. It is a stand-alone Windows PC program that enables administrators to monitor workflow processes.
Answer:A
9. Which three statements are true with respect to Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Role
Inheritance in Oracle User Management? (Choose three.)
A. A user can have only one role defined.
B. A role cannot have multiple responsibilities
C. Permissions associated with a role are not inherited by all its superior roles.
D. Permissions associated with a role are inherited by all its superior roles and the individuals to which any of these roles are assigned.
E. RBAC removes the existing link the need for creating separate responsibilities for combinations of job
functions.
F. A role can be configured to consolidate the responsibilities, permissions, function security and data
security polices that users require to be able to perform a specific function.
Answer: DEF
10. You are using the System Profile Option screen to initialize the value of a profile option at several
levels. You selectthe levels, the level context, and the profile option to change. You are able to default the
value for the site, application and responsibility, but you are unable to change the value for the user level.
Which statement explains this situation?
A. The responsibility secures the ability to control profile options.
B. The application prevents the changing of canned profile options at that level.
C. Another profile option toggles changing of profile options at the user level by the system administrator
and is currently false.
D. Only users are permitted to set their profile option values by using the personal profile settings.
E. The profile option definition prohibits changing the value of the profile option at that level.
Answer: E

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-212 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1z0-212 exam? Searching 1z0-212 Test Questions, 1z0-212 Practice Exam, 1z0-212 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 116 Q&A to your 1z0-212 exam preparation. In the 1z0-212 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

Free 1z0-212 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Oracle Other Certification 1z0-212 exam (Oracle payables 11i funfamentats). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-212) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Which four statements are true about modifying a payment batch? (Choose four.)
A.You can create a zeroamount payment for a supplier site.
B.You can remove all invoices for a particular supplier site.
C.You can create a negativeamount
payment to clear a credit memo.
D.You can modify the payment or discount amounts for a selected invoice.
E.Payables automatically builds payments after you modify a payment batch.
Correct:A B D E
2.From which three areas do the defaults come when you enter a supplier? (Choose three.)
A.Items
B.Operating Unit
C.Financial Options
D.Payables Options
E.Receiving Options
Correct:C D E
3.The bank account in the Payment Batches and Payments window defaults from _____.
A.Supplier level
B.Bank Accounts
C.Supplier Site level
D.Financial Options
E.Payables Options Payments region
Correct:E
4.Why would you use the clearing payment method?
A.to generate a payment document to clear a debit memo
B.to generate a payment document to clear a credit memo
C.to account for intercompany expenses when you disburse funds through banks
D.to account for intercompany expenses when you do not disburse funds through banks
Correct:D
5.Which two statements regarding receipt accruals are true? (Choose two.)
A.For accruals generated at period end, the accrual is sent to General Ledger after the Receipt Accruals PeriodEnd process is run and the accrual is cleared when the journal entry is reversed in General Ledger.
B.For accruals generated at receipt, the accrual is automatically sent to General Ledger and subsequently
cleared when the journal entry is reversed in General Ledger.
C.For accruals generated at period end, the accrual is sent to General Ledger after the Receipt Accruals PeriodEnd
process is run and subsequently cleared when an invoice is entered and matched to the purchase order.
D.For accruals generated at receipt, the accrual is automatically sent to General Ledger and subsequently cleared when an invoice is entered and matched to the purchase order.
Correct:A D

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6.Which statement is true about invoices?
A.An invoice can be paid without being validated.
B.An invoice can be paid only after the invoice accounting entries are created.
C.Both invoice accounting entries and payment accounting entries need to be transferred to General Ledger at the same time if they are in the same calendar period.
D.An invoice needs to be validated before you can create the invoice accounting entries.
E.Invoice accounting entries and payment accounting entries can be transferred at different times to General Ledger only if they are in different calendar periods.
Correct:D
7.Client R has configured its Accounts Payables application to require threeway
matching. All invoice tolerances are set to zero. No discounts are allowed. A standard purchase order is entered for consulting services only. An invoice is entered and matched against this purchase order,having no tax or freight charges on it. The total invoice amount matches the distribution amount.When the steps to prepare the invoice for payment are completed, the invoice is placed on hold. The companys business policy states that all holds cannot be manually released. The client wants to pay this supplier now. What would you recommend?
A.Manually release the hold because it is not a system hold.
B.The service must be received in Purchasing because threeway matching is required
C.The service must be received in Accounts Payable because it is a purchase order for a service and not
a commodity or item.
D.Inspection is required because it is a threeway match, so you have to register the inspection in the system first.
E.Change the invoice tolerances in the Payables Options form to be greater than zero, so that the invoice
does not go on hold again.
Correct:B
8.The periodclose processes of which Oracle Applications can be directly affected by the Payables periodclose activities and processes? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Purchasing
B.Installed Base
C.Advanced Pricing
D.Assets
E.Enterprise Asset Management (EAM)
Correct:A D
9.ABC Inc. has found that one of its suppliers needs to be enabled as a 1099 vendor, which is a
taxrelated
designation for selfemployed
contractors. But for this supplier invoices have already
been entered and paid. Which two steps should the company take to ensure accurate tax reporting?
(Choose two.)
A.Run the Update Income Tax Details Report.
B.Update the tax reporting information in the supplier site.
C.Create a new supplier with tax reporting information and merge the supplier.
D.Create a new supplier site with tax information and update the supplier site in all invoices.
Correct:A B
10.Company A wants to use Oracle Internet Expenses, and wants to set up expense report
templates for that purpose. Which three statements are true about the setup of the expense report
templates? (Choose three.)
A.The expense report must be enabled for Internet Expenses.
B.The policy schedule must be attached to the expense item.
C.Each expense item must have an expense category assigned to it.
D.The tax code assigned to an expense item must be Web enabled.
E.The GL account assigned to an expense item must have all the Accounting Flexfield segment values
filled in.
Correct:A C D

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-211 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1z0-211 exam? Searching 1z0-211 Test Questions, 1z0-211 Practice Exam, 1z0-211 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 122 Q&A to your 1z0-211 exam preparation. In the 1z0-211 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

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Test4actual offers free demo for Oracle Other Certification 1z0-211 exam (Oracle 11i general ledgerfundamentals). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-211) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Which two statements would be true when helping a customer make implementation decisions
for General Ledger? (Choose two)
A.Integration issues can be minimized.
B.Cost of upgrades would not be affected.
C.Patching cannot be done on a customized implementation.
D.Training can be standardized when Oracle is implemented without customization.
E.All Oracle subledger journals go directly to General Ledger to overcome interface problems.
Correct:A D
2.Revenue accounts can be viewed only by the head of the Finance team, who has a GL Superuser
responsibility. She has successfully created a standard Profit and Loss statement for the company.
Another member of the department with a General Ledger Supervisor responsibility has been
asked to run the standard Profit and Loss statement for Feb06.
The report shows only the
expenses accounts. Which two steps should she perform so that the Profit and Loss statement
will run successfully? (Choose two.)
A.Recreate the Profit and Loss under her own responsibility.
B.Ask to have security removed from her responsibility.
C.Perform an online
inquiry to get the revenue balances.
D.Ask to have the profile option FSG: Enforce Segment Value Security changed to No.
Correct:B D
3.In creating a report, what is true about the column set? (Choose two.)
A.Formats can be set for each column.
B.Accounts cannot be assigned to a column set.
C.Calculations can be performed using columns.
D.Seeded column sets provided by Oracle must be used.
Correct:A C
4.Select the two minimum set up steps for intercompany accounting. (Choose two.)
A.Define a clearing company for all manytomany
intercompany journals.
B.Include an Intercompany segment in the chart of accounts structure.
C.Enable the Intercompany Qualifier for the Intercompany segment.
D.Enable Balance Intercompany Journal when defining the set of books.
E.Set up intercompany accounts for every journal source and journal category for intercompany
transactions.
F.Set up intercompany accounts for journal source and journal category of Other.
G.Define a value set for the Company and Intercompany segments.
H.Define a journal source and a journal category for Intercompany.
Correct:D F
5.Select the three true statements about mapping rules. (Choose three.)
A.A rollup rule tells General Ledger what detail level of information to transfer and how to roll that
information up to the parent.
B.There are only three rollup rules: 1. Transfer Level Detail Using Detail Ranges; 2. Transfer Level Detail Using Parent; 3. Transfer Level Summary Using Parent
C.You can define a combination of segment values and account rules.
D.There are only two mapping rule actions: 1. Copy Value from; 2. Assign Value from
E.Mapping sets enable you transfer data from multiple subsidiaries simultaneously.
Correct:A C E

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6.XYZ Corporation has two sets of books and six inventory organizations. What is the minimum
number of times that XYZ needs to run the general ledger interface in order to close the inventory
at the end of each accounting cycle?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
E.10
F.12
Correct:C
7.XYZ Company has many Financial Statement Generator reports created to produce Profit & Loss
statements and Balance Sheet reports. Occasionally XYZ has a need to run a report that is slightly
different than the standard ones that are already created. Which two types of changes could XYZ
make using the Row Order feature? (Choose two.)
A.add a new calculation
B.sort based on column values
C.display segment values and descriptions
D.change how rounding options are performed
Correct:B C
8.XYZ Enterprise has two diverse business operations in retail stores and services. It has five
legal entities in Canada and five in the United States for both operations. The fiscal year end is the
same for all the legal entities with 12 monthly periods. However, XYZ wants to use a 454
accounting calendar for its retail operations and a calendarmonth
accounting calendar for the
services operations. XYZ also wants to use a single chart of accounts structure. Which five items
must XYZ define to meet the minimum setup steps that are required for the sets of books for all
legal entities? (Choose five.)
A.two sets of books
B.four sets of books
C.three sets of books
D.account combinations
E.one accounting calendar
F.two accounting calendars
G.chart of accounts structure
H.period types or use seeded ones
I.enable seeded CAD and USD currencies
Correct:B F G H I
9.BK Corporation has a legal entity in each of its business operations in the United States, Canada,
Malaysia, Singapore, and Italy. The controller in Italy advises that the corporation must use the
Italian statutory accounts as its natural accounts. The corporation decides to define five sets of
books (one for each country) but wants to use a single, global chart of accounts structure. Choose
a possible design (for the sets of books) that uses a single, global chart of accounts structure, and
also meets the Italian controller’s requirement.
A.The chart of accounts structure contains an extra segment for Italy.
B.The list of values in the Account segment includes a range reserved for Italy.
C.The length of the Account segment for Italy is different from that for the other countries.
D.The chart of accounts structure uses a different Value Set for the Account segment for Italy.
E.The chart of accounts structure for Italy uses Account values prefixed with a special character.
Correct:B
10.What is the effect of summary accounts on the efficiency of the posting process?
A.Use of summary accounts increases the efficiency of the posting process.
B.Use of summary accounts decreases the efficiency of the posting process.
C.There is no effect, because summary accounts do not use the posting process to accumulate values.
D.Use of summary accounts neither increases nor decreases the efficiency of the posting process.
Correct:B

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-208 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-208) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Which of the following opcodes is NOT implemented in the Business Process Tier?
A.PCM_OP_CUST_COMMIT_CUSTOMER
B.PCM_OP_ACT_ACTIVITY
C.PCM_OP_SEARCH
D.PCM_OP_RATE_ACTIVITY
E.PCM_OP_CUST_MODIFY_CUSTOMER
Correct:C
2.Which of the following statements about Opcodetofunction
mapping is TRUE?
A.The config structure is included in the CMs pin.conf file
B.The fm_generic_config.c file is provided with Portal SDK as a template for opcodetofunction
mapping
C.Each opcode macro name is mapped to one or more C functions
D.A and B
E.A, B, and C
Correct:D
3.Which of the following is NOT a valid error location for an error that occurred in the CM?
A.PIN_ERRLOC_CM
B.PIN_ERRLOC_FLIST
C.PIN_ERRLOC_PCM
D.PIN_ERRLOC_POID
E.B and C
Correct:C
4.________________ is a Service Integration Manager that integrates Portal with terminal servers
to support dialup Internet access service
A.Radius Manager
B.Content Manager
C.GSM Manager
D.EAI Manager
E.WAP Manager
Correct:A
5.Which of the following would you NOT find in the DMs configuration file?
A.Path and filename of Translation Manager shared libraries
B.Username and password for accessing external systems
C.Queuing manager parameters
D.Hostname and port number of the CM connecting to this DM
E.Database number for the DM
Correct:D

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6.An array called PIN_FLD_ADDRESS is to be added onto the input Flist, input_flistp. The new
Flist pointer for the array will be called array_flistp. Which of the following provides the CORRECT
syntax for adding the array onto the input Flist?
A.PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, input_flistp, 1, &ebuf);
B.array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, input_flistp, 1, &ebuf);
C.PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, array_flistp, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, 1, &ebuf);
D.array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, 1, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, &ebuf);
E.array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, 1, &ebuf);
Correct:E
7.Which of the following statements INCORRECTLY describes the Object Tier of the Portal
architecture?
A.This tier can also be referred to as the Data Manager
B.One object tier can be used with multiple data tiers
C.This tier is used to translate Portal data into the format that can be processed by the Data Tier
D.This tier processes all requests coming from the Business Process Tier
E.This tier can also be referred to as the Translation Manager
Correct:B
8.All Portal opcodes are defined in the ___________________ file. An opcode corresponds to a
___________________. To write the code to implement the new opcode, you can use the
___________________ file as a template.
A.ops.h, function, fm_generic_ops.c
B.pcm_ops.h, function, fm_generic_opcode.c
C.ops.h, function, fm_generic_opcode.c
D.pcm_ops.h, program, fm_generic_ops.c
E.ops.h, program, fm_generic_ops.c
Correct:B
9.Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the dm_if_process_op() function?
A.It processes a base opcode from the CM
B.The function contains custom implementation of base opcodes
C.The functionality within this function is specific to the external system
D.A and C
E.A, B, and C
Correct:E
10.Which of the following is an example of an event in Portal?
A.Making a phone call
B.Purchasing a product
C.Rolling over unused free minutes
D.A and B
E.A, B, and C
Correct:E

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-200 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-200) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Identify three correct statements of a multiorg
setup. (Choose three.)
A.A Government Reporting Entity (GRE)/Legal Entity can point to one and only one Set of Books.
B.Inventory Orgs can be associated directly with a GRE/Legal Entity.
C.The creation of a Master Inventory organization is mandatory.
D.One and only one Operating Unit can be associated with a GRE/Legal Entity.
E.One Set of Books can have one or many GRE’s/Legal Entities associated with it.
Correct:A C E
2.ABC Corp. has set up the Asset Category key flexfield. It has also set up a descriptive flexfield to
store vehicle information associated with the asset category “Vehicle.” Identify two correct
statements. (Choose two.)
A.The setting up of the descriptive flexfield is mandatory.
B.The Asset Category flexfield is owned by the Oracle Assets module.
C.The descriptive flexfield is associated with tables in the Oracle Assets module.
D.Only the Asset Category flexfield is associated with tables in the Oracle Assets module.
Correct:B C
3.ABC Corp. is implementing 11i Oracle Applications. The company has two local administrators
in separate locations. They need to ensure that only a relevant set of users is visible to each of
these local administrators. Which action will meet the requirement?
A.create a separate role for each local administrator
B.specify user administration privileges in Oracle User Management
C.use Data Security to provide relevant access to each local administrator
D.use Function Security to provide relevant access to each local administrator
Correct:B
4.Which are the two options to which a menu can be assigned? (Choose two.)
A.menu
B.functions
C.data group
D.responsibility
E.functional group
Correct:A D
5.Identify two correct options regarding subscription processing. (Choose two.)
A.processes user response
B.processes function activities
C.passes information to Notification Mailer
D.sends event information to a workflow process
E.include the task of executing custom code on the event information
Correct:D E

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6.Identify three correct statements regarding Oracle EBusiness
Suite. (Choose three.)
A.It can run entirely on the Internet.
B.A minimum of two modules needs to be implemented for an organization.
C.It is engineered to work as an integrated system on a single IT infrastructure.
D.It supports multidirectional
flows of business information within an organization.
Correct:A C D
7.Which tier in Oracle EBusiness
Suite is responsible for storing application data?
A.database tier
B.application tier
C.client (desktop) tier
D.both database tier and application tier
Correct:A
8.Identify two tasks of the Application tier in 11i Oracle Applications architecture. (Choose two.)
A.process business logic
B.store business logic in the database
C.retrieve business logic from the database
D.manage communication between desktop/client tier and database tier
Correct:A D
9.Paul wants to log in to 11i Oracle Applications. Identify the first server to which his request
would go.
A.Web server
B.Reports server
C.Administration server
D.Concurrent Processing server
Correct:A
10.ABC Corp. is installing 11i Oracle Applications on two nodes A and B. On Node A, it has
installed the Forms server, Web server, and Administration server. On Node B, it has installed the
Concurrent Processing server. By default, on which node would the Reports server be installed?
A.Node A
B.Node B
C.neither of the nodes
D.both Node A and Node B
Correct:B

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“Oracle Other Certification “, also known as 1z0-262 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Test4actual offers free demo for Oracle Other Certification 1z0-262 exam (Hyperion Planning 4.1 Administrator ). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Oracle Other Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Oracle Other Certification certification. The Oracle Other Certification (1z0-262) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.To which application elements can you assign access rights? (Choose four.)
A. Account, Entity, Scenario, and Version dimensions
B. Account, Entity, Period, Scenario, and Version dimensions
C. Userdefined
dimension members, if the Apply Security dimension property is selected
D. Data forms
E. Task lists
F. Smart lists
Answer: ACDE
2. You created the MyPlan application with the following plan types:
Revenue
Profit
and Loss
Balance
Sheet
Workforce
How many Essbase Analytics databases are created for MyPlan?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B
3. Planning stores the application definition in the:
A. Shared Services
B. Planning Server
C. Essbase Analytics Database
D. Planning Relational Database
Answer: D
4. When creating Planning applications, what base time period allows you to select Weekly Distribution
options?
A. Yearly
B. Quarterly
C. Monthly
D. Weekly
Answer: C

5. You created the MyPlan Planning application with the following plan types:
Revenue
Profit
and Loss
Balance
Sheet
Workforce
How many relational databases are required for MyPlan?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
6. You need to run the Shared Services Configuration Utility to create or regenerate the
HspJSHome.properties file whenever you: (Choose three.)
A. Create or delete a Planning application
B. Delete or make changes to a UDL file
C. Install or upgrade a Web application server
D. Backup or restore the Planning relational database
E. Create a new business rule
Answer: ABC
7. For all Hyperion System 9 products, all user provisioning and external authentication is handled through:
A. Shared Services
B. Planning Web client
C. Planning Desktop
D. Analytic Administration Services Console
Answer: A
8. Which data sources are supported by Hyperion Financial Reporting? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Analytic Services 7.1.x or 9.0
B. Planning 4.0.1 or 4.1
C. Financial Management 4.0.1 or 4.1
D. SAP BW 3.1 or 3.5
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Service Pack 3a (Enterprise or Standard Edition)
F. IBM DB2 Release 8.2
Answer: ABCD

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“Other Oracle “, also known as 1z0-257 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1z0-257 exam? Searching 1z0-257 Test Questions, 1z0-257 Practice Exam, 1z0-257 Dumps?

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Test4actual offers free demo for Other Oracle 1z0-257 exam (Hyperion Financial Management 4.1 Consultant). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Other Oracle exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Other Oracle certification. The Other Oracle (1z0-257) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Using Hyperion Reports, the Relative Member function can be used with which dimension?
A.Entity
B.Period
C.Scenario
D.Accounts
Answer: B
2. If a user is opening a subcube
for the first time, which grid displays the fastest?
A.Accounts in rows; Years in columns
B.Entities in rows; Scenarios in columns
C.Accounts in rows; Custom1 members in columns
D.Entities in rows; Value dimension members in columns
Answer: C
3. An administrator needs to link several integrations together in the Hub and run them sequentially. How
can this be accomplished?
A.Add the integrations to a group.
B.Use Hyperion Application Link to run the integrations sequentially.
C.Use Common Event services to schedule the DataBroker integrations.
D.Build a master integration in DataBroker which has several sub integrations within it.
Answer: A
4. The AllowAdjFromChildren attribute is checked on a parent entity.
Which two nodes in the Value dimension are valid for Journal entries? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C. [Parent Adjs]
D. [Contribution Adjs]
E.
Test4actual Information Co., Ltd.All rights reserved.
3 Answer:CD
5. For Number Formatting in the User Preferences, _____.
A.the User Preference takes precedence
B.each application has its own formatting
C.Application Configuration settings take precedence
D.the client’s machine Regional Settings take precedence
Answer: A

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“Other Oracle “, also known as 1z0-255 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1z0-255 exam? Searching 1z0-255 Test Questions, 1z0-255 Practice Exam, 1z0-255 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 197 Q&A to your 1z0-255 exam preparation. In the 1z0-255 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Other Oracle helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

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Test4actual offers free demo for Other Oracle 1z0-255 exam (Hyperion Essbase 7.1.2 Cnsultant). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Other Oracle exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Other Oracle certification. The Other Oracle (1z0-255) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1. You want to convert your existing nonASM
files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or
command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. conventional export and import
C. the CONVERT command of RMAN
D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN
Answer: D
2.Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.
Answer: ABD
3. Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting
the changes made by other transactions?
A. pointintime
recovery
B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number
C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed
D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and
use them for recovery
Answer: D
4. When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting
execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)
A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Answer: AC
5. While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along
with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe
the consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B.The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance
under standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline
has been imported.
Answer: AC

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“Other Oracle “, also known as 1z0-241 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Test4actual offers free demo for Other Oracle 1z0-241 exam (PeopleSoft Application Develper I: PeopleTools&PeopleCode). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Other Oracle exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Other Oracle certification. The Other Oracle (1z0-241) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Select the three statements that are true about search records. (Choose three.)
A.Search records build the search page for the component.
B.Search records are referenced only at level zero in the component.
C.Search records rarely reference views; they are usually SQL tables.
D.Search records populate level zero on all pages that are in the component.
E.Search records provide a highlevel
key to the primary records that are referenced in the component.
Answer: ADE
2. Select the most efficient way to determine the effect of modifying a definition.
A.Examine the SQL in the PeopleTools tables.
B.Use the XREF reports and visually examine the modifications.
C.Use the Find Definition Reference utility in Application Designer.
D.Use the Cross Reference utility in the PeopleTools, Utilities folder.
Answer: C
3. Select the three true statements about PeopleSoft field definitions. (Choose three.)
A.All PeopleSoft field definition names are in uppercase.
B.Date, Time, and DateTime fields all have a fixed length.
C.When you work with Number and Signed Number field types, the sum of integer and decimal positions
cannot
D.Altering an existing field definition’s default label can have consequences at both the record definition
level and the page definition level.E.For a Long Character field, enter a field length of 256 to enable the
database platform to determine the maximum length of the field.
Answer: ABD
4. Examine this PeopleCode snippet
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_EMPLOYEE;
Local Field &Fld_ROLE;
&RS_LEVEL0 = GetLevel0();
&ROW_LEVEL0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_LEVEL1 = &ROW_LEVEL0.GetRowSet(SCROLL.DEPT);
&ROW_LEVEL1 = &RS_LEVEL1(1);
&REC_EMPLOYEE = &ROW_LEVEL1.EMPLOYEE;
&FLD_EMPID = &REC_TASKRSRC.EMPID;
&ID = &FLD_EMPID.Value;
Can the code given above be replaced with the following statement?
&ID = GetField().Value
A. No. The record must be specified.
B.No. The row and record must be specified.
C.Yes, if the code is placed on the current row
D.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPID field.
E.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPLOYEE record.
Answer: D
5. For the Employee Expenses application, a PeopleCode program could be placed either on the
EMPLOYEE record or on the EMP_EXPENSE component. You decide to place it on the component.
Which is a valid reason for choosing to place the program on the component instead of the record?
A.The program updates multiple database tables.
B.The program validates data across multiple records.
C.Component PeopleCode executes before record PeopleCode, so it is more efficient.
D.The record definition is used on several components, but this program should run only on this
component.
E.The program initializes fields on the search page, and the search record is associated with the
component.
F.The component contains several record definitions and you do not want to duplicate the code in each
record.
G.Component PeopleCode is more reusable because component PeopleCode is available for execution
on other components.
Answer: D

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“Other Oracle “, also known as 1z0-047 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1z0-047 exam? Searching 1z0-047 Test Questions, 1z0-047 Practice Exam, 1z0-047 Dumps?

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Test4actual offers free demo for Other Oracle 1z0-047 exam (Oracle Database SQL Expert). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Other Oracle exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Other Oracle certification. The Other Oracle (1z0-047) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Evaluate the CREATE TABLE statement: CREATE TABLE products (product_id NUMBER(6)
CONSTRAINT prod_id_pk PRIMARY KEY, product_name VARCHAR2(15)); Which statement is true
regarding the PROD_ID_PK constraint?
A.It would be created only if a unique index is manually created first.
B.It would be created and would use an automatically created unique index.
C.It would be created and would use an automatically created nonunique index.
D.It would be created and remains in a disabled state because no index is specified in the command.
Correct:B
2.Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.The USER_SYNONYMS view can provide information about private synonyms.
B.The user SYSTEM owns all the base tables and useraccessible
views of the data dictionary.
C.All the dynamic performance views prefixed with V$ are accessible to all the database users.
D.The USER_OBJECTS view can provide information about the tables and views created by the user
only.
E.DICTIONARY is a view that contains the names of all the data dictionary views that the user can access.
Correct:A E
3.Evaluate the CREATE TABLE statement: CREATE TABLE products (product_id NUMBER(6)
CONSTRAINT prod_id_pk PRIMARY KEY, product_name VARCHAR2(15)); Which statement is true
regarding the PROD_ID_PK constraint?
A.It would be created only if a unique index is manually created first.
B.It would be created and would use an automatically created unique index.
C.It would be created and would use an automatically created nonunique index.
D.It would be created and remains in a disabled state because no index is specified in the command.
Correct:B
4.Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.The USER_SYNONYMS view can provide information about private synonyms.
B.The user SYSTEM owns all the base tables and useraccessible
views of the data dictionary.
C.All the dynamic performance views prefixed with V$ are accessible to all the database users.
D.The USER_OBJECTS view can provide information about the tables and views created by the user
only.
E.DICTIONARY is a view that contains the names of all the data dictionary views that the user can access.
Correct:A E
5.Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose
two.)
A.The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B.The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C.The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D.Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.
Correct:A D
6.OE and SCOTT are the users in the database. The ORDERS table is owned by OE. Evaluate the
statements issued by the DBA in the following sequence: CREATE ROLE r1; GRANT SELECT,
INSERT ON oe.orders TO r1; GRANT r1 TO scott; GRANT SELECT ON oe.orders TO scott;
REVOKE SELECT ON oe.orders FROM scott; What would be the outcome after executing the
statements?
A.SCOTT would be able to query the OE.ORDERS table.
B.SCOTT would not be able to query the OE.ORDERS table.
C.The REVOKE statement would remove the SELECT privilege from SCOTT as well as from the role R1.
D.The REVOKE statement would give an error because the SELECT privilege has been granted to the
role R1.
Correct:A

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“Other Oracle “, also known as 1z0-050 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Exam Details
The Other Oracle exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Other Oracle certification. The Other Oracle (1z0-050) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Identify the two direct sources from where SQL plans can be loaded into the SQL plan baselines.
(Choose two.)
A.Cursor cache
B.Stored outline
C.SQL Tuning Set
D.Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots
Correct:A C
2.Which two statements about workload capture and replay operations are true? (Choose two.)
A.The clients must be created manually on the test machines to perform more realistic testing.
B.Restart the database in RESTRICTED mode before beginning workload replay to enable a clean state
for workload replay.
C.Restart the database in RESTRICTED mode before beginning workload capture to enable a clean state
for capturing the workload.
D.The application state of the capture system must be identical to the application state of the replay
system when the workload replay begins.
Correct:C D
3.Which statement describes the effect of table redefinition on the triggers attached to the table?
A.All triggers on the table remain valid.
B.All triggers on the table are invalidated and are automatically revalidated with the next DML execution
on the table.
C.All triggers on the table are invalidated and must be manually recompiled before the next DML
execution on the table.
D.Only triggers that are affected by the changes to the structure of the table are invalidated and
automatically revalidated with the next DML execution on the table.
Correct:B
4.USER_DATA is a nonencrypted tablespace that contains a set of tables with data. You want to
convert all existing data in the USER_DATA tablespace and the new data into the encrypted format.
Which methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Use Data Pump to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
B.Use ALTER TABLE..MOVE to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
C.Use CREATE TABLE AS SELECT to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
D.Enable row movement for each table to be encrypted and then use ALTER TABLESPACE to encrypt
the tablespace.
E.Encrypt the USER_DATA tablespace using the ALTER TABLESPACE statement so that all the data in
the tablespace is automatically encrypted.
Correct:A B C
5.Evaluate the following block of code: BEGIN DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN.CREATE_ACL ( acl
=> ‘mycompanycompermissions.
xml’, principal => ‘ACCT_MGR’, is_grant => TRUE, privilege =>
‘connect’); DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN.ASSIGN_ACL ( acl =>
‘mycompanycompermissions.
xml’, host => ‘*.mycompany.com’); END; What is the outcome of
the above code?
A.It produces an error because a fully qualified host name needs to be specified.
B.It produces an error because the range of ports associated with the hosts has not been specified.
C.It creates an access control list (ACL) with the user ACCT_MGR who gets the CONNECT and
RESOLVE privileges.
D.It creates an access control list (ACL) with the user ACCT_MGR who gets the CONNECT privilege but
not the RESOLVE privilege.
Correct:C

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“Other Oracle “, also known as 1z0-048 exam, is a Oracle certification.
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Exam Details
The Other Oracle exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Other Oracle certification. The Other Oracle (1z0-048) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.Which optional parameter of the DESCRIPTION clause of a TNS entry can you use to randomize
the access to available listeners?
A.FAILOVER
B.LOAD_BALANCE
C.SOURCE_ROUTE
D.TYPE_OF_SERVICE
Correct:B
2.You are working as a DBA in a RAC environment that is available for testing. The RAC
environment has all the database files stored in the OCFS file system. You plan to install ASM and
move all the database files to ASM to achieve better performance. During the installation, you
selected redundancy level as normal for the disk group being added. What is the reason for
selecting this redundancy level?
A.You want to use hardware mirroring.
B.You do not want to have any mirroring in the disk group.
C.You have two failure groups defined, so you want to use twoway
mirroring.
D.You have three failure groups defined, so you want to use threeway
mirroring.
Correct:C
3.You are running a twoinstance
database with six redo log groups defined and decide to add a
third thread to support a third database instance on the third node of the cluster. Which three
commands would you issue to achieve this using command line administration? (Choose three.)
A.ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE THREAD 3;
B.ALTER DATABASE ENABLE THREAD 3;
C.ALTER SYSTEM ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 8;
D.ALTER SYSTEM ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 7;
E.ALTER DATABASE ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 7;
F.ALTER DATABASE ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 8;
Correct:B E F
4.Which initialization parameter would you use for each RAC instance to make sure that each
listener on each RAC node is aware of the load of all the others?
A.LOCAL_LISTENER
B.REMOTE_LISTENER
C.REMOTE_DEPENDENCIES_MODE
D.PREFER_LEAST_LOADED_NODE_
Correct:B
5.You have a welltuned,
nonRAC
single instance Oracle database with several services, all of
which perform perfectly. You plan to migrate the database to RAC in the next two weeks and all file
systems would be shared using Oracle Cluster File System. After the migration, you want to
perform a test to monitor RACspecific
tuning issues that would not have occurred on a nonRAC
database. Which six areas would you monitor to determine whether there are RACspecific
performance problems after migration? (Choose six.)
A.Interconnect latency
B.Instance recovery time
C.Services with applications that use external tables
D.Services with applications that truncate large tables
E.Services with applications using local context variables
F.Services with queryintensive
applications relying on full table scans
G.Services with insertintensive
applications that use Oracle sequences for index keys
H.Services with applications that have occasional queries, using index access on modestly sized tables
I.Services with insertintensive
applications that generate their own keys without Oracle sequences
Correct:A B D F G I

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 1Z0-630
Exam Name: Siebel7.7 Analytics Server Architect Professional Core Exam
Questions and Answers:116Q&A
Update Time:2009-6-3
Price:$109.00
“Other Oracle “, also known as 1Z0-630 exam, is a Oracle certification.
Preparing for the 1Z0-630 exam? Searching 1Z0-630 Test Questions, 1Z0-630 Practice Exam, 1Z0-630 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 116 Q&A to your 1Z0-630 exam preparation. In the 1Z0-630 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Other Oracle helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

Free 1Z0-630 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Other Oracle 1Z0-630 exam (Siebel7.7 Analytics Server Architect Professional Core Exam). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Exam Details
The Other Oracle exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Oracle Certified Network Associate Other Oracle certification. The Other Oracle (1Z0-630) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Oracle Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Oracle Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Oracle networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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FREE DEMO:
1.When doubleclicking
ABC.rpd in the Analytics/Repository directory, the Analytics Server architect gets
the message The repository ‘ABC.rpd’ can only be opened as ReadOnly.
Do you want to open it? What
can you tell from that message? Choose two.
A. Siebel Analytics Server is running
B. Siebel Analytics Web service is running
C. ABC. rpd is a default repository specified in the NQSConfig.ini
D. ABC. rpd is a special repository that can only be opened in online mode
Answer: AC
2. What information does the Administration Tool log when checking out a project? Choose three.
A. Machine name
B. User privileges
C. Repository file size
D. Projects
E. Time
Answer: ADE
3. Which of the following objectlevel
security action settings are done in the Siebel Analytics repository
using the Administration Tool? Choose two.
A. Assign users to a Web catalog group
B. Create a new repository group
C. Create a new user in the repository
D. Create a Web catalog group
E. Define permissions for dashboard
Answer: BC
4. Siebel Answer’s subject areas correspond to which Analytics Administration Tool layer?
A. Presentation layer
B. Business Model and Mapping layer
C.Physical layer
D. Metadata layer
Answer: A
5. How do you invoke Time Series Wizard in the Siebel Analytics Administration Tool?
A. In the Business Model and Mapping layer, select a business model and rightclick> Time Series Wizard
B. In the Physical layer, select a schema folder and rightclick> Time Series Wizard
C. In the Presentation layer, select a catalog folder and rightclick> Time Series Wizard
D. From the File menu, select Time Series Wizard
E. From the Manage menu, select Time Series Wizard
Answer: A

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6. Which of the following is NOT true of the Siebel Analytics repository?
A. Physical layers can have multiple data sources
B. Objects within a presentation catalog can derive from multiple business models
C. By default, a presentation column uses the same name as its logical column in the Business Model and
Mapping layer
D. Key columns do not get exposed to the UI so it is acceptable to delete them in the Presentation layer
E. Business Model and Mapping layer can have multiple data sources
Answer: B
7. What do the logical joins do? Choose two.
A. They help the Analytics Server choose best physical path between multiple physical tables in each logical table
B. They calculate measurable quantities
C. They are always the same as the physical joins
D. They determine cardinality between logical tables
Answer: AD
8.Which of the following is NOT true of consistency check?
A. It guarantees that the business model is correctly built
B. You can check the whole repository’s consistency or just a business model’s consistency
C. It finds logical columns that are not mapped to physical sources
D. It checks for undefined logical join conditions
Answer: A
9. To set the number of elements at each level of a dimension, which number would you use?
A. The number of columns in a logical table
B. The number of levels in a dimension
C. The number of dimensions in a business model
D. The number of tables in a physical model
E. The number of distinct rows in a physical column
Answer: E
10. Which of the following is NOT necessary when specifying the most economical source?
A. Create a new physical table source manually
B. Create a new logical table source manually
C. Select the physical table
D. Specify the content
Answer: A

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11. ABC wants to track the difference between the amount billed and the amount collected from its
customers for every quarter. Which of the following methods would NOT be used in this situation?
A. Create a new logical column in the business model
B. Create a new column in the Presentation layer
C. Use existing physical columns as objects in a formula
D. Create a new physical column using the Calculation Wizard
E.Use the Calculation Wizard to create a new column comparing two existing columns
Answer: D
12. ABC wants to measure its revenue based on the country, region, and city by setting up columns to
measure CountryRevenue, RegionRevenue, and CityRevenue. Which measure type is ABC using?
A. Attribute hierarchy
B. Fact hierarchy
C. Rank measure
D. Levelbased
measure
E. Share measure
Answer: D
13. ABC is a multinational corporation. It wants to measure its revenue based on the country, region, and
city by setting up columns to measure CountryRevenue, RegionRevenue, and CityRevenue. Where
would ABC’s server architect set the grand total level?
A. Country
B. Region
C. City
D. None of the above; It needs to create an AllCountry
Grandtotal level and set it there
Answer: D
14. Which of the following are true of the prebuilt Siebel Analytics Repository? Choose three.
A. Prebuilt database objects map to Siebel OLTP or Siebel RMW but not both
B. Prebuilt connection pools reduce the overhead of connecting to a database
C. Many prebuilt star schemas support the prebuilt Siebel Analytics applications
D. Repository variables are prebuilt and therefore cannot be changed
E. Measures can come from multiple stars and case statements determine correct data sources to access
Answer: BCE
15.Pat is a server architect who is new to an integrated Siebel Analytics. Which of the following tools
would Pat use to find out which presentation columns are related to a particular logical column of the
Siebel Analytics repository?
A. Variable Manager
B. Security Manager
C. Query Repository
D. Analytics Dashboard
Answer: C

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16. Which of the following is true of the query logging level?
A. You can set the logging level for individual users in Siebel Analytics Administration Tool > Manage >
Security > Users
B. You can set the logging level for the groups in Siebel Analytics Administration Tool > Manage >
Security > Users
C. The lower the number of a log level, the more thorough the log is
D. You can set the logging level for the groups and individual users in Siebel Analytics Administration
Tool > Manage > Security > Users
Answer: A
17. ABC Company wants to analyze their sales figure by time period, products, product hierarchies, and
sales rep. In this case, what would be the dimension?
A. Sales figure
B. Time period and products
C. Products, product hierarchies, and sales rep
D. Time period, products, product hierarchies, and sales rep
E. Sales figure, time period, products, and sales rep
Answer: D
18. ABC Company is using Microsoft SQL Server ABC database and no data warehouse. After establishing
connection to the ABC database using ODBC, how would you verify that the connection to be used with the Siebel Analytics was established? Choose two.
A. By running a query against ABC tables using MS SQL Query Analyzer
B. By testing the connection via the Siebel Analytics ODBC Client tool
C. By doubleclicking
the Physical layer’s connection pool in the Siebel Analytics Administration Tool
D. By opening Siebel Answers and checking whether the database shows up in the Subject Area
Answer: AB
19. After modifying and saving the Analytics repository file offline, which steps are necessary to reload the
modified metadata? Choose two.
A. Restart the Siebel Analytics Server
B. Restart the DAC Server
C. Restart the Siebel Server
D. Restart the Siebel Analytics Web service
Answer: AD
20. Click the Exhibit. Which of the following is NOT true of the Exhibit?
A. This repository is open in an online mode
B. Customers, Periods, and Products are the dimensions
C. Dollars, Units Shipped, Units Ordered, Net Weight Shipped, and Cuts are all aggregated
D.The CutsP column has been checked in to the server
Answer: D

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21. How would you make it possible to check out objects automatically in the Siebel Analytics
Administration Tool?
A. By navigating to Tools > Options > General > Check out objects automatically
B. By navigating to File > Check Out All
C. By navigating to File > MultiUser
Checkout
D. By navigating to Manage > Variables
Answer: A
22. Which of the following is NOT true of Connection Pool?
A. Only one connection pool is allowed for each Physical layer database
B. You can use XML data by specifying Call Interface as XML
C. Maximum connection setting is the maximum number of concurrent connections
D. You can set whether the users can share a login
Answer: A
23. Click the Exhibit. Which of the following is NOT true of the query shown in this log?
A.Physical database accessed for this query was named ABC
B. The query was ordered by Sales District
C. The Dollars information is coming from the SalesFacts presentation table
D. Star repository was accessed for this query
E. D1_customer2, D1_calendar2, and D1_orders2 are the physical tables accessed for this query
Answer: B
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways to define physical foreign keys and joins?
A. Create them using Joins Manager > Action > New > Foreign Key
B. In the Business Model and Mapping layer, rightclick
the model folder > Physical Diagram and navigate
to any of the paths
C. In the Physical layer, rightclick
the database > Physical Diagram and navigate to any of the paths that
are not grayed out
D. In the File menu, select Create > Joins
Answer: D
25.What can be used to model a schema in which the dimensions and the fact have a manytomany
relationship?
A. Complex join
B. Aggregate table
C. Helper table
D. Bridge table
Answer: D

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26. You would like to examine which columns in the Presentation layer map to a specific table in the
business model. Which of the following utilities would you use?
A. Siebel Answers
B. Query Repository from the Analytics Administration Tool
C. Online Help of the Analytics Administration Tool
D. Physical Table Diagram from the Analytics Administration Tool
Answer: B
27. How are the columns in the Period tables map to each other across the layers of a repository? Select
the correct pair to complete the following sentence: The presentation columns map to ____ and the
logical columns map to ___.
A. the logical columns in the Presentation layer; the physical columns in the Physical layer
B. the logical columns of the Business Model and Mapping layer; the physical columns in the Physical
layer or other logical columns of the Business Model and Mapping layer
C. the logical columns of the Physical layer; the physical columns of the Physical layer
D. the logical columns of the Business Model and Mapping layer; the logical columns of the Presentation
layer
Answer: B
28. Which of the following are NOT the steps to create dimensions? Choose two.
A.Drag physical table columns to the appropriate dimension levels
B. Set the levels of a dimension such as Grand Total level or child level
C. Create logical table key or keys
D. Specify the number of elements at each level
E. Check Use for drilldown for every key set for every level
Answer: AE
29. Which of the following are true of the Siebel Analytics repository? Choose two.
A. The Physical layer can have only one data source
B. Objects within a Presentation catalog can derive from multiple business models
C. By default, a presentation column uses the same name as its logical column in the Business Model and
Mapping layer
D. Delete key columns in the Presentation layer even if you need the third part tools to access the
Presentation layer using the ODBC driver
E. The Business Model and Mapping layer can have multiple data sources
Answer: CE
30. Which of the following can be done using the Expression Builder utility? Choose three.
A. Synchronize aliases
B. Copy a business model with a Presentation catalog
C. Update the Physical layer
D. Create aggregations
E. Create physical complex joins
F. Create a calculation measure using existing logical or physical columns as objects in a formula
Answer: DEF

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